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Exam Code: HH0-220
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Certified Implmenter-Modular)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is Hitachi Data System's recommended practice for zoning?
A. port-based zoning
B. zoning is optional
C. single HBA zoning (one HBA per zone)
D. single operation system zoning (all HBAs from one OS in a zone)
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are implementing a Hitachi Unified Storage File Module cluster with a single SMU. How do you run
the smu-config script?
A. Connect an Ethernet cable and login as supervisor.
B. Connect a serial null-modem cable and login as supervisor.
C. Connect an Ethernet cable and login as root.
D. Connect a serial null-modem cable and login as root.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You want to configure SNMP on a Hitachi Unified Storage system. The license key is already installed
and enabled. What are two key steps when configuring SNMP? (Choose two.)
A. Import the MIB file into the HUS.
B. Install an SNMP Manager on the HUS.
C. Create the SNMP environment file in the HUS.
D. Register the SNMP configuration files in the HUS.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 When implementing host access security for a LUN in a Hitachi Unified Storage system, to what is the
host WWN applied?
A. Host Group
B. Storage Group
C. Domain Group
D. Link Group
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has a Hitachi Unified Storage (HUS) system model 110 configured with iSCSI I/O interface
boards. They now want to connect it to a FC-SAN and have purchased the FC-Option upgrade to do so.
Which two tasks must be performed on the HUS system? (Choose two.)
A. Set the HUS FC port topology as Fabric.
B. Set the HUS FC port topology as Point-to-Point.
C. Install and enable the FC-Option on the HUS.
D. Install and enable the FC Expansion Board.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A customer wants to create a multi-path environment for a specific Redhat Linux application on a
Hitachi Unified Storage system. They have created Host Groups on all of the available ports and mapped
the logical units accordingly. Which two multi-pathing options can be used for active/active connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Device Mapper
B. Multipath I/O (MPIO)
C. Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager
D. Multiplexed I/O (MPxIO)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What needs to be replaced in case of a local memory DIMM failure on a Hitachi Unified Storage
controller?
A. the controller
B. the local memory DIMM
C. the controller and the local memory DIMM
D. the controller, the local memory DIMM and the cache DIMMs
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are three characteristics of the Hitachi Unified Storage systems active/active controller design?
(Choose three.)
A. SNM2 GUI is used to turn on active/active controller processing.
B. Workload is automatically balanced between controllers.
C. When creating a LUN the default controller must be selected.
D. The processor of Ctlr0 can access the Fibre Channel (FC) ports of Ctrl1.
E. Non disruptive firmware upgrade is possible even if a host is connected by only one path.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.9 A Hitachi Unified Storage system is connected to a Solaris server. If you want to optimize performance
for the host I/Os, how do you determine the appropriate queue depth value?
A. Set queue depth to 1.
B. Use the operating system default value.
C. The value is set according to the results of the initial SCSI inquiry.
D. Using the Host installation guide for Fibre Channel.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have just allocated four 3TB LUNs from a Hitachi Unified Storage System to a set of ESX 4.x
servers. The VMware administrator can see volumes that are assigned to the servers from an older
storage array, but not the volumes you have just allocated. What is the most likely cause?
A. The FC switch ports need to be disabled/enabled to force the HBAs to re-login to the fabric.
B. This a newer storage array with an older version of ESX so the HBA drivers need to be updated.
C. ESX 4.x servers cannot recognize volumes that are 2TB or larger.
D. The rescan function in VMware is not working, so both servers need to be rebooted.
Answer: C

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NO.11 How should the Hitachi Unified Storage systems dual power supplies be connected?
A. by FS6 circuits breakers
B. only one should be connected, the other being standby
C. by adjacent sockets on a single power distribution unit
D. by two independent and appropriately rated power distribution units
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are upgrading a Hitachi Unified Storage (HUS) system with the File Module option. Which
combination is required to support this upgrade?
A. FC connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS F software bundle
B. 10GbE connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS M software bundle
C. FCoE connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS F software bundle
D. FC connectivity between the HUS and the File Module plus the Hitachi BOS N software bundle
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has identified a performance bottleneck with Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
production host LUNs. The performance improvement plan includes a change to the Hitachi Dynamic Link
Manager load balancing algorithm which is currently set to Round Robin. Which setting would you
recommend?
A. Least I/Os
B. Least blocks
C. Extended Round Robin
D. Extended Least blocks
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer wants to migrate data between two Hitachi Unified Storage systems using TrueCopy. What
are two requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The DM-LU must be greater than 10GB.
B. There must be FC connectivity between the arrays.
C. The P-Vol and S-Vol size must be equal.
D. A Command Device must be created.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 A customer wants to start using ShadowImage on several of their existing Hitachi Unified Storage
systems. They would like a solution to centrally configure their Point-in-Time copies. Which product would
you recommend?
A. Hitachi Dynamic Replicator
B. Hitachi Universal Replicator
C. Business Continuity Manager
D. Hitachi Replication Manager
Answer: D

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NO.16 A customer will be implementing a Hitachi Unified Storage File Module two-node NAS cluster with one
SMU. How many power connections are necessary?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.17 You have been asked to allocate storage from a Hitachi Unified Storage system to a cluster of AIX
hosts. The application owner wants you to make sure that the queue depth is set to 16 for all the LUNs.
Where do you define the queue depth?
A. on each LUN
B. on the server HBAs
C. on the WWNN Target Ports
D. on the WWPN Target Ports
Answer: A

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NO.18 What are two ways to register a new Hitachi Unified Storage system with Storage Navigator Modular 2?
(Choose two.)
A. SNM2 can scan a range of IP addresses.
B. SNM2 can import a .CSV file containing IP addresses.
C. The controller IP addresses can be entered into SNM2.
D. SNM2 automatically detects connected arrays using UDP broadcasts.
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 Which two operations can be performed with the Web utility on a Hitachi Unified Storage system?
(Choose two.)
A. Take a simple trace.
B. Install license keys.
C. Perform an online microcode update.
D. Perform an offline microcode update.
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 What are two effects of persistent binding? (Choose two.)
A. Persistent binding can speed up path failover.
B. Persistent binding guarantees Command Device security.
C. Persistent binding can speed up the server boot process.
D. Persistent binding guarantees that target assignments are preserved between reboots.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HH0-230
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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Exam Code: QQ0-401
Exam Name: HDI (SDI-Service Desk Foundation Qualification)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is a common metric used to measure Service Desk performance?
A.Abandon before answer (ABA)
B.Average time to respond (ATR)
C.Incident quality score (IQS)
D.Total faxes received (TFR)
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes your sales and marketing role within the Service Desk?
A.Log the opportunity so that it can be followed up on at a later date.
B.Recognise opportunities to increase business and know what to do with them.
C.Refer any business opportunities to the marketing department.
D.Stop trying to resolve the problem and concentrate on increasing the business.
Answer:B

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NO.3 When made by a customer, which comment, is most likely to indicate that a conflict is developing?
A.I am tired of my computer always being down.
B.I don't understand what you mean.
C.I see what you are saying to me.
D.You need to slow down.
Answer:A

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NO.4 What is a best practice for handling phone calls?
A.Clear your desk of any clutter.
B.Show the customer sympathy.
C.Use a standard greeting.
D.Use formal titles when greeting customers.
Answer:C

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NO.5 What is a best practice for helping an emotional caller?
A.Ask the customer to talk about their personal problems.
B.Help the customer focus on the Incident and resolution.
C.Maintain a professional approach according to the SLA.
D.Move the conversation carefully on to general issues within the company.
Answer:B

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NO.6 When is it most appropriate to escalate an Incident to a manager?
A.Escalate an Incident if the customer begins to complain.
B.Escalate an Incident the customer is emotional.
C.Escalate an Incident if the customer asks to speak to a manager.
D.Escalate an Incident if the Service Desk is short of staff.
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which action best illustrates responsible team behaviour?
A.Logging every call.
B.Reporting security violations.
C.Sharing knowledge.
D.Taking more than your share of calls.
Answer:C

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NO.8 What is the most important reason for maintaining legal compliance in the Service Desk?
A.Maintaining legal compliance prevents other teams seeing what the Service Desk does.
B.Maintaining legal compliance protects the organisation assets.
C.Maintaining legal compliance protects you from blame.
D.Maintaining legal compliance protects your managers.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which process is concerned with the capture, structure, and reuse of solutions?
A.Call management.
B.Incident management.
C.Knowledge management.
D.Problem management.
Answer:C

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NO.10 What is a best practice when writing e-mail?
A.Use animation to emphasise your point.
B.Use different colours to improve readability.
C.Use emoticons to convey empathy.
D.Use standard headers and footers for consistency.
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?
A.The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B.The customer previous experience with the Service Desk.
C.The customer position in the business.
D.The level of support provided by the Service Desk.
Answer:B

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NO.12 What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A.Closed questions.
B.Open questions.
C.Technical questions.
D.Personal questions.
Answer:B

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NO.13 What is a best practice for establishing effective relationships with your customers?
A.Ensure that your customer understands the SLA.
B.Provide technical language guidance.
C.Show your customer sympathy.
D.Understand your customer business.
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which is a best practice for dealing with stress?
A.Answer fewer inquiries.
B.Confront the issues that are causing stress.
C.Stop customers from venting.
D.Take time off work.
Answer:B

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NO.15 What is the best reason for using proper grammar and spelling when documenting Incidents?
A.Not using proper grammar and spelling is sloppy.
B.Not using proper grammar and spelling will anger the customer.
C.Using proper grammar and spelling is professional.
D.Using proper grammar and spelling will impress your supervisor.
Answer:C

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NO.16 Why is it important for you to demonstrate confidence when dealing with others?
A.Demonstrating confidence establishes credibility with customers.
B.Demonstrating confidence increases first contact resolution.
C.Demonstrating confidence maximises talk time.
D.Demonstrating confidence minimises conflicts with customers.
Answer:A

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NO.17 What is the best description of an Incident?
A.An Incident is any call from a customer.
B.An Incident is a call routed by the ACD.
C.An Incident is a management statistic.
D.An Incident causes an interruption to normal service.
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which statement best characterises a friendly and supportive workplace?
A.Management encourages extensive overtime.
B.Team members help each other.
C.Team members work alone.
D.Team members work only their allotted hours.
Answer:B

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NO.19 What is the most important benefit of being empathetic towards your customers?
A.Your customers will know that you feel sorry for them.
B.Your customers will know that you can fix their problem for them.
C.Your customers will know that you understand how they feel.
D.Your customers will want to talk to you whenever they call.
Answer:C

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NO.20 Which metric is used to measure the average amount of time that a customer waits before a call is
answered?
A.Abandon before answer.
B.Availability.
C.Average speed to answer.
D.First contact resolution.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: GB0-190
Exam Name: H3C (Construction Small-and Medium-Sized Enterprise Network)
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 OSI ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:A

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NO.2 IP 202.135.111.77 ________________
Answer:202.135.111.2554. TCP SYN Z ________
A.a
B.b
C.a+1
D.b+1
Answer:D

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5.FTP ______
A.20
B.21
C.23
D.22
Answer:B

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6. ______
A.startupB.boot-loaderC.bootfileD.bootstartupAnswer:B7. MTU
MTU ______ ping
A.-a
B.-d
C.-f
D.-c
Answer:C

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8. STP BPDU
______
A.Blocking
B.Listening
C.Learning
D.Forwarding
E.Waiting
F.Disable
Answer:B

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9. STP SWA
_______ Blocking
A.SWC P1B.SWC P2C.SWD P1D.SWD P2E.
Answer:BD

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10. SWA 0 ______
A.[SWA]stppriority0
B.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stppriority0
C.[SWA]stprootpriority0
D.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stprootpriority0
Answer:A

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11.IP 10.0.10.32 255.255.255.224 ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:B

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12.IP 132.119.100.200 255.255.255.240 ______
A.132.119.100.207
B.132.119.100.255
C.132.119.100.193
D.132.119.100.223
Answer:A

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13.TFTP ______
A.67
B.68
C.69
D.53
Answer:C

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14. Windows ARP
A.displayarp
B.arp-a
C.arp-d
D.showarp
Answer:B

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15.
HostA----GE0/0--MSR-1--S1/0-----WAN-----S1/0--MSR-2--GE0/0----HostB
MSR MSR-1 S1/0 3.3.3.1/30
MSR-2 S1/0 3.3.3.2/30 MSR-1
iproute-static192.168.1.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2iproute-static192.168.2.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
192.168.0.0/22 HostB
A. MSR-1
B. MSR-1
C. iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.252.03.3.3.2
D. MSR-1
Answer:AC

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16.
A.IGP
B.OSPF
C.RIPv1
D.RIPv2
Answer:CD

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17. MSR IP GE0/0
RTA
[RTA]ospf[RTA-ospf-1]area0[RTA-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTA-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority2RTB
[RTB]ospf[RTB-ospf-1]area0[RTB-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTB-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority
OSPF ______
A.OSPF 192.168.1.0/30 OSPFDR
B. DR BDRC. DR DRotherD.
FULL 2-WayAnswer:B18.
0.0.0.0 S0/0
______
A. 120.1.1.1
B.
C. 3
D. 100
Answer:ABCD

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19. RIP MSR
<MSR>displayiprouting-table6.6.6.6RoutingTable:PublicSummaryCount:2Destination/MaskProtoPreCost
NextHopInterface6.6.6.0/24RIP1001100.1.1.1GE0/06.0.0.0/8Static600100.1.1.1GE0/0
6.6.6.6 ______
A. RIP
B. RIP
C. Cost
D.
Answer:A

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20. MSR RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPFArea0 RTB
RTC RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 IP 192.168.3.2/24 192.168.4.2/24 RTA
[MSR-ospf-1]area0.0.0.0[MSR-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.00.0.3.255[MSR-GigabitEthernet0/0]
ospfcost2[MSR-GigabitEthernet1/0]ospfdr-priority0
_____
A. MSR GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPF
B. MSR GE0/0 OSPF
C.RTA GE DRD.RTA GE DRE.
GE0/0 Cost OSPF
Answer:BDE

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21. GigabitEthernet0/0 HostA IP 192.168.0.2/24
Serial6/0 ACL
firewallenablefirewalldefaultpermitaclnumber3003rule0permittcprule5permiticmpaclnumber2003rule0den
ysource192.168.0.00.0.0.255inerfaceGigabitEthernet0/0firewallpacket-filter3003inboundfirewallpacket-filt
er2003outboundipaddress192.168.0.1255.255.255.0interfaceSerial6/0link-protocolppp
ipaddress6.6.6.2255.255.255.0
______
A.HostA ping
B.HostA ping 6.6.6.2 ping 192.168.0.1C.HostA ping 192.168.0.1
ping 6.6.6.2D.HostA Telnet
Answer:CD

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22. RTA NAT
[RTA]aclnumber2000[RTA-acl-basic-2000]rule0permitsource10.0.0.00.0.0.255[RTA-acl-basic-2000]natad
dress-group1200.76.28.11200.76.28.11[RTA]interfaceEthernet0/1[RTA-Ethernet0/1]natoutbound2000add
ress-group1
Client_A Client_B Server RTA NAT ______
A.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102

NO.3 PN:0,status:NOPAT,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512
VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
B.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102
4VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1212288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
C.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1212289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
D.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51Answer:D

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23. 2Mbps
______
A. V.24
B. RTA baudrate2048000
C. RTB baudrate2048000
D. RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
E. RTA bandrate2048000 RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
Answer:B

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24. ISDNDCC MSR dialer-rule
[MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000
A. ACL3000
B. ACL3000
C. permit deny
D. [MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000permit
Answer:A

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25. MSR RTA RTB Serial1/0
RTA
[RouterA-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf[RouterA-Serial1/0]ipaddress10.1.1.130[RouterA-Seria11/0]frmapip1
0.1.1.230RTB
[RouterB-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf
[RouterB-Serial1/0]interfaceserial0/0.1[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]ipaddress10.1.1.230[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]frm
apip10.1.1.130
______
A. DLCI RTA ping RTBB. RTA ping 10.1.1.2C. RTA
ping 10.1.1.2D. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2E. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2Answer:BD26. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AB

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27. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:CD

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28. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AC

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29. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BD

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30. delay
______
A. propagationdelay
B. switchingdelay
C. accessdelay
D. queuingdelay
Answer:ABCD

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NO.4 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BC

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Exam Name: Fortinet (Principles of Network Security and FortiGate Configurations)
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Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are the necessary procedure before using Xauth . ?
A. create user group
B. create firewall policy
C. enable IPSEC VPN
D. enable PPTP
Answer: A , B, C

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NO.2 What is the valid IPS option ?
A. IPS signature
B. IPS anomaly
C. IPS engine
D. IPS list
Answer: A , D

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NO.3 what is the valid ipsec pahse 2 option
A. des
B. 3des
C. md5
D. sha1
Answer: C, D

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NO.4 What is the valid ipsec phase 1 option
A. des
B. 3des
C. md5
D. sha1
Answer: A , B

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NO.5 What is valid router object of Fortigate unit ?
A. prefix list
B. route map
C. key chain list
D. access list
Answer: A , B, C

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NO.6 What is the valid method to fixup Fortigate interface speed&duplex?
A. via web GUI
B. via CLI
C. via auto update
D. via foritlog
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following default factory setting is true about Fortigate unit?
A. internal: 192.168.1.99/24; http, https, ping, ssh access is enabled
B. external: 192.168.100.99/24; ping is enabled
C. internal: 192.168.1.99/24;https,ping,ssh access is enable
D. external: 192.168.100.99/24;ping & http is enable
Answer: A , B

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NO.8 Which logging can enable when enable protection profile content log?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. IMAP
D. POP3
E. SMTP
Answer: A , B, C , D

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NO.9 Which of the following firmware upgrade method will cause configuration reset?
A. WebUI
B. CLI
C. Fortimanager
D. interrupt booting procedure by CLI
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which command can show HA status ?
A. get system status
B. diag sys ha status
C. exec ha maga 1
D. get sys lic
E. config ha
Answer: A , b , ,C

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NO.11 What is the valid option of Fortigate HA schedule
A. none , hub , least-connection , round-robin
B. weighted round-robin , random , ip , ip port
C. switch , ip , ip port
D. priority , hub , least-connection
Answer: A , B

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NO.12 What is the default protection profile ?
A. strict
B. scan
C. web
D. unfiltered
Answer: A , B, C , D

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NO.13 What is the valid address object in Fortigate unit ?
A. 10.1.1.1 / 255.255.255.0
B. 10.1.1.1 / 255.255.255.255
C. 10.1.1.1 / 255.255.255.248
D. 10.1.1.1 / 255.255.255.252
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following statement about TCP MTU for Fortigate is true?
A. default MTU is 1500 bytes
B. For manual and DHCP addressing mode the MTU size can be from 576 to 1500 bytes
C. for PPPOE addressing mode the MTU size can be from 576 to 1492 bytes
D. default MTU is 1492 bytes
Answer: A , B, C

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NO.15 What service can protection profile protect?
A. ftp
B. IMAP
C. POP3
D. http
E. SMTP
Answer: A , B, C , D , E

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NO.16 What is the best way to implement Fortigate HA ?
A. connect corresponding interface to individual switch
B. connect all interface to the same hub or switch
C. connect corresponding interface directly using cross-over cable
D. connect corresponding interface directly using straight-through cable
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the valid network in Fortigate
A. 10.1.1.0 / 255.255.255.0
B. 10.1.1.1 / 255.255.255.0
C. 10.1.1.0 / 255.255.255.255
D. 10.1.1.0 / 255.255.0.0
Answer: B, D

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NO.18 What is the valid web script filtering option for web filtering ?
A. Java Applet
B. Worm
C. ActiveX
D. Cookie
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.19 What are the valid option in web filtering ?
A. content block
B. url block
C. exempt list
D. script filtering
Answer: A , B, C , D

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NO.20 Which one is the most efficient way to block MSN traffic by Fortigate unit ?
A. Use IPS module by applying protection profile
B. Use Antivirus engine
C. Use firewall policy
D. Use content filtering
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Extreme Networks (Extreme Networks Associate (ENA) )
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Total Q&A: 241 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 RIP version 2 uses a composite metric that includes link speed and delay.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which ExtremeWare feature permits ESRP to increase the number of protected
VLANs by placing them under the control of a master VLAN?
A. ESRP groups
B. ESRP domains
C. ESRP host attach
D. None of these.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is not advertised in an OSPF Link State Advertisement?
A. Costs
B. Link utilization
C. Router interfaces
D. Neighbor information
Answer: B

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NO.4 How would you change the password for John Doe's management account?
A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.
C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which RIP settings are enabled by default?
A. Triggered updates
B. Poison Reverse
C. Split Horizon
D. Route redistribution
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following routes will be used to forward a frame to 192.168.1.174?
A. 192.168.1.0/29
B. 192.168.1.128/30
C. 192.168.1.128/25
D. None of these.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different
STPDs to share the same port when tagged.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 Extreme Networks "I" series switches have this many queues per port. __________.
Answer: 8

NO.10 If a packet to be forwarded does not match existing flow information in the ASIC
route cache, the packet is queued to the __________ for route processing.
Answer: cpu

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NO.11 Which command would you use to configure VLAN CORPORATE (tag 100) with
ports 1:1 through 4:8 tagged and ports 5:1 through 8:8 as untagged?
A. config vlan corporate ports add 1:1-4:8 tagged ¨¤ config vlan corporate ports add
5:1-8:8 untagged
B. config vlan corporate add ports1:1-4:8 tagged ¨¤ config vlan corporate add ports
5:1-8:8 untagged
C. config corporate vlan add ports 1:1-4-8 tagged ¨¤ config corporate vlan add ports
5:1-8:8 untagged
D. config corporate vlan ports add 1:1-4:8 tagged ¨¤ config corporate vlan ports add
5:1:8:8 untagged
Answer: B

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NO.12 QoS policy is applied _____ in an Extreme switch.
A. per port
B. per queue, per port
C. per queue
D. None of these.
Answer: B

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NO.13 How do you disable Split Horizon?
A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise
Answer: C

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NO.14 What type of area is used to limit external routes?
A. Stub area
B. Normal area
C. Backbone area
D. None of these
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?
A. ExtremeWare 4.x
B. ExtremeWare 5.x
C. ExtremeWare 6.x
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.16 In RIP, poison reverse means that:
A. A route is not advertised to the interface from which it was learned.
B. A route is advertised as unreachable to the interface from which it was learned.
C. Traffic whose source interface does not match the routing table is blackholed.
D. None of these.
Answer: B

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NO.17 All OSPF routers in the same area must have the same LSDB.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the default STP forward delay value?
A. 2 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.19 STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while
leaving the other STPDs inactive?
A. enable stpd s1
B. enable s1 stpd
C. enable stp ¨¤ enable s1 stpd
D. None of these
Answer: A

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NO.20 Without QoS, all packets are allowed equal access to an egress port.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.21 Name a relative route priority that cannot be altered? __________.
Answer: direct

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NO.22 Exhibit:
Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH
command?
A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.
B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.
C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.
D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH.
Answer: D

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NO.23 VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address
192.168.0.1/16?
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan
Answer: A

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NO.25 Unlike VRRP, the Extreme Standby Router Protocol provides redundancy at both
the data link and network layers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.26 Internal routers within an OSPF area are either DRs, BDRs, or __________.
Answer: ODR

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NO.27 __________ allow(s) multiple VLANs to be controlled by a single ESRP instance.
A. ESRP domains
B. ESRP groups
C. ESRP host-attach
D. None of these.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and
192.168.255.254/24 on a Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the
following command: config ospf routerid automatic?
A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24
Answer: D

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NO.29 A VLAN can be a member of up to 64 STPDs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.30 SNMP access to ExtremeWare can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile
C. Use the disable snmp access command
D. None of these
Answer: ABC

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NO.1 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.6 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.7 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.8 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.9 You are working on your companys IPTables Firewall; you wish to create a rule to address traffic using
ports 1024 through 2048. Which of the following would you use during the creation of your rule?
A. p:1024 P:2048
B. P:1024 p2048
C. p=1024-2048
D. 1024-2048
E. 1024:2048
Answer: E

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NO.10 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server
2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.11 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network. According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.13 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

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NO.15 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

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NO.17 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

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NO.18 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.19 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.21 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.22 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.23 What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts
were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

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NO.24 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

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NO.25 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

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NO.26 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.27 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.29 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.30 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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