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Exam Code: BH0-002
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN PROGRAMME/PROJECT SUPPORT)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The Internal Rate of Return is:
A.The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B.The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C.The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D.The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer:D

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NO.2 End Project Reviews should be used to:
A.Identify who was responsible for any failures
B.Consider support requirements
C.Capture lessons learned for future projects of a similar nature
D.Agree when the project team can be released for other work
Answer:C

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NO.3 What is product based planning?
A.A technique that marketing departments use to launch new products and services.
B.A technique that seeks to identify tasks and activities
C.A technique that monitors the progress of the project
D.A technique that concentrates on the identification and definition of what the project is to deliver
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a Project Initiation Document / Terms of
Reference?
A.Detailed Analysis
B.Timescales
C.Risks
D.Objectives
Answer:A

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NO.5 Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. "The design
authority is responsible for?"
A.Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B.The programme
C.Business integrity within the programme
D.Technical integrity across projects
Answer:D

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Exam Code: ISEB-SWTINT1
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)
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Total Q&A: 43 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage.?
If width > lenth then
Biggest_diension = width
If height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
Biggest_diension = length
If height>length
Then
Biggest_dimension = height
End_if
End_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.3 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT_001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSEP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSEP - Information Systems Security Engineering Professional)
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Total Q&A: 214 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation
(C&A) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-60
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
D. NIST Special Publication 800-37
E. NIST Special Publication 800-53
F. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
Answer: A,B,D,E,F

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NO.2 Which of the following guidelines is recommended for engineering, protecting, managing, processing,
and controlling national security and sensitive (although unclassified) information
A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
B. Special Publication (SP)
C. NISTIRs (Internal Reports)
D. DIACAP by the United States Department of Defense (DoD)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready
for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media
A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following elements are described by the functional requirements task Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Coverage
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Quantity
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following tasks obtains the customer agreement in planning the technical effort
A. Task 9
B. Task 11
C. Task 8
D. Task 10
Answer: B

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NO.6 FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a
methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels
shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed?
A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device
A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following email lists is written for the technical audiences, and provides weekly
summaries of security issues, new vulnerabilities, potential impact, patches and workarounds, as well as
the actions recommended to mitigate risk
A. Cyber Security Tip
B. Cyber Security Alert
C. Cyber Security Bulletin
D. Technical Cyber Security Alert
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following security controls is a set of layered security services that address
communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space
A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
C. File encryptors
D. Application program interface (API)
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following federal laws is designed to protect computer data from theft
A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following Security Control Assessment Tasks gathers the documentation and supporting
materials essential for the assessment of the security controls in the information system
A. Security Control Assessment Task 4
B. Security Control Assessment Task 3
C. Security Control Assessment Task 1
D. Security Control Assessment Task 2
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's
configuration management process
A. Chief Information Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
Answer: C

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NO.13 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one
A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to identify
security breaches.?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following elements of Registration task 4 defines the system's external interfaces as well
as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system
A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware
Answer: C

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NO.16 The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has
been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
C. Change management
D. Compliance validation
E. System operations
F. Maintenance of the SSAA
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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NO.17 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls
A. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
B. Risk Management
C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE
when classifying the needed security functionality
A. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
B. IMM
C. System Security Context
D. CONOPS
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process
A. Authorizing Official
B. Information system owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following types of firewalls increases the security of data packets by remembering the state
of connection at the network and the session layers as they pass through the filter
A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)
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Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

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NO.2 A company has determined a need for profiling a centralized data warehouse for business intelligence
reporting.
During the initial client discovery session, which three initial questions should be addressed? (Choose
three.)
A. Which data marts are generated?
B. Which data sources are contributors?
C. Which underlying issues are suspected?
D. Which users are subject matter experts?
E. Which are the referential integrity violations?
Answer: BCD

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NO.3 What are two valid ways of connecting AuditStage to a database? (Choose two.)
A. JDBC
B. federation
C. Information Analyzer
D. direct database connection
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which three steps must be performed to tell Information Analyzer where data is located? (Choose
three.)
A. Define a host.
B. Define a project.
C. Define a data store.
D. Define a data connection.
E. Define analysis settings.
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Which statement is true with regards to publishing analysis results?
A. Reference tables can be created then published and accessed using QualityStage.
B. Categories can be created then published and accessed using Business Glossary.
C. The accepted primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using DataStage.
D. The candidate primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using Business Glossary.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

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NO.7 Which analysis builds a complete set of all the column pairs between primary key columns and
remaining selected columns in selected tables?
A. column analysis
B. foreign key analysis
C. cross table analysis
D. primary key analysis
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which method should be used to estimate disk space to store frequency distributions for a given
column based on the volume of data to be profiled?
A. Multiply the number of distinct values by 2000.
B. Multiply the total number of columns and the total number of rows.
C. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum column format size
plus 150.
D. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum number of formats plus
150.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which three steps must be completed to make a data source available for analysis in Information
Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. Define a host computer.
B. Import the source metadata.
C. Import a sample set of source records.
D. Define an ODBC connection to the data source.
E. Define an ODBC connection to the IADB repository.
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use DB2 as the analysis database, which statement
is true?
A. The analysis database is automatically created at installation.
B. You must install the analysis database after you install the suite.
C. The analysis database DSN is automatically created at installation.
D. You must configure the analysis database before you install the suite.
Answer: A

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NO.12 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

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NO.13 Which three methods can be used to review the results of domain analysis? (Choose three.)
A. Examine each value individually.
B. Specify a range to determine the validity of the values.
C. Compare all of the values to the values in a reference table.
D. Specify a conditional test to determine the validity of the values.
E. Create an automated script to check the validity of values based on business requirements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 You have an Information Analyzer installation in an environment where multiple servers and multiple
operating systems are available.
Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. all layers on one RedHat Linux server
B. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server
C. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on another RedHat Linux
server
D. Domain layer on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server, Repository layer on
another AIX UNIX server
Answer: AC

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NO.15 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source? (Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels function.
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

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NO.18 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned over for use
Answer: CD

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NO.19 What are two architectural components of AuditStage? (Choose two.)
A. client interface
B. parallel execution engine
C. internal or external database
D. common services connector
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which architectural component applies to both Information Analyzer and AuditStage?
A. XMeta
B. domain
C. client interface
D. parallel engine
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-994
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V6.0,System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which commands would disable the Object Authority Manager on AIX for Queue Manager
"BROADWAY"?
A.endmqm -c BROADWAY; export MQSNOAUT=yes; strmqm BROADWAY;
B.strmqm BROADWAY; export MQSNOAUT=yes
C.export MQSNOAUT=yes; crtmqm BROADWAY
D.export MQSNOAUT=yes; strmqm BROADWAY
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which parameter setting on the server connection channel requires a WebSphere MQ Client
application to have personal digital certificates?
A.CONVERT(YES)
B.SECURITY(YES)
C.SSLCAUTH(YES)
D.SSLCAUTH(REQUIRED)
Correct:D

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NO.3 An AIX WebSphere MQ queue manager 'QM1' owns a channel 'QM1.TO.QM2'. The parameters of
the channel are as follows: CHANNEL(QM1.TO.QM2) CHLTYPE(SDR) ALTDATE(2005-09-26)
ALTTIME(16.51.53) BATCHHB(0) BATCHINT(0) BATCHSZ(50) COMPHDR(NONE) COMPMSG(NONE)
CONNAME(QM2) CONVERT(NO) DESCR(Sender Channel to QM2) DISCINT(6000) HBINT(300)
KAINT(AUTO) LOCLADDR( ) LONGRTY(999999999) LONGTMR(1200) MAXMSGL(4194304)
MCANAME( ) MCATYPE(PROCESS) MCAUSER( ) MODENAME( ) MONCHL(QMGR) MSGDATA( )
MSGEXIT( ) NPMSPEED(FAST) PASSWORD( ) RCVDATA( ) RCVEXIT( ) SCYDATA( )
SCYEXIT(svr_sec_exit2(ChannelExit))) SENDDATA( ) SENDEXIT( ) SEQWRAP(999999999)
SHORTRTY(10) SHORTTMR(60) SSLCIPH( ) SSLPEER( ) STATCHL(QMGR) TPNAME( )
TRPTYPE(TCP) USERID( ) XMITQ(QM2) The remote server has just been upgraded and the Queue
Manager rebuilt. Unfortunately, all of the WebSphere MQ objects where only defined with the
default parameters. The 'QM1.TO.QM2' channel is started and its status is "RETRYING". Which of
the following actions is most likely to correct the problem with the channel pair?
A.Set the receiver channel's message channel agent user attribute correctly
B.Set the receiver channel's CipherSpecs attribute correctly
C.Set the receiver channel's Security Exit attribute correctlyC.Set the receiver channel's Security Exit
attribute correctlyC.Set the receiver channel's Security Exit attribute correctly
D.Clear all messages from the QM2 Transmission QueueD.Clear all messages from the QM2
Transmission QueueD.Clear all messages from the QM2 Transmission Queue
Correct:C

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NO.4 A LINUX Queue Manager was in the middle of processing a large unit of work when the server's
power supply was interrupted. The power problem has been repaired and the server has restarted.
What will the WebSphere MQ System Administrator need to do to ensure any uncommitted
Persistent Messages are processed?
A.Contact the application team and ask them to resend the last batch of messages
B.Use the CHECKPT function to add or delete a record in the BSDS checkpoint queue
C.Delete the Log records written since the last checkpoint
D.Nothing, as the uncommitted persistent messages put or got in a transaction are rolled back during
restart
Correct:D

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NO.5 Within a WebSphere MQ based application, all of the following types of reports are available
EXCEPT:
A.Confirm on Arrival (COA)
B.Confirm on Delivery (COD)
C.Receiving Application Processing (RAP)
D.Expiry
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which two of the following are services provided by the SSL features of WebSphere MQ?
A.Confidentiality
B.Application-Level Security
C.Message Compression
D.Data Recovery
E.Data Integrity
Correct:A E

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NO.7 What attribute is required on the ALTER CHANNEL(Channel Name) command?
A.CONNAME
B.CHLTYPE
C.TRPTYPE
D.XMITQ
Correct:B

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NO.8 A company has a Queue Manager configured with Linear Logging enabled. The log files are
mounted on a separate disk, the old log files are regularly archived to ensure sufficient disk space.
What procedure should the WebSphere MQ Administrator follow after altering an empty local
queue to ensure this change is not lost by a media failure before the Queue Manager is next
restarted?
A.Recreate the Queue Manager to use Circular Logging.
B.Increase the frequency of the regularly archiving of the log files.
C.Media images are recorded automatically by the Queue Manager, the WebSphere MQ System
Administer does not need a procedure.
D.Use the control command to record the new local queue's definition.
Correct:D

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NO.9 What userid or group always has access to all WebSphere MQ Objects on UNIX platforms?
A.mqadmin
B.wmqadmin
C.mqm
D.root
Correct:C

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NO.10 An application development team is coding a tool to send PCF commands to a WebSphere MQ
Queue Manager on HP-UX . The new tool is to administer WebSphere MQ, but the application
developers do not want to write PCF messages and require an easy method of handling error
conditions. What is the best IBM provided application programming interface called to perform
this function?
A.WebSphere MQ Administration Interface
B.Message Queuing Interface
C.Application Messaging Interface
D.PCF Programming Interface
Correct:A

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NO.11 The registry entries of a Windows Queue Managers named 'QM2' have been corrupted. While
attempting to start QM2, WebSphere MQ is unable to read the "LogPath' stanza. If WebSphere MQ
is installed in the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\ directory, then in which directory will the AMQERR01.LOG
be updated as error messages are generated?
A.In the \var\mqm\qmgrs\QM2\errors subdirectory
B.In the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\qmgrs\@SYSTEM\errors subdirectory
C.In the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\errors subdirectory
D.In the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\qmgrs\QM2\errors subdirectory
Correct:C

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NO.12 A WebSphere MQ System Administrator enters this MQSC command "dis
chstatus(QM1.TO.QM2)" on a UNIX Queue Manager and receives this output. AMQ8417: Display
Channel Status details. CHANNEL(QM1.TO.QM2) CHLTYPE(SDR) CONNAME(QM2) CURRENT
RQMNAME( ) STATUS(RETRYING) SUBSTATE( ) XMITQ(QM2) Administrator needs to locate more
detailed information on the reason for the retrying channel status? Where can this information be
found?
A.In the system error log directory
B.In the log file AMQERR04.LOG
C.In the log file MQERRLG1
D.In the appropriate queue manager's errors log files
Correct:D

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NO.13 A Unix Server has just restarted after a media failure. When the queue manager startup
command was entered, the error message "QUEUE MANAGER UNAVAILABLE" was returned.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A.The mqs.ini does not reference the queue manager with the correct information for locating its files.
B.During the media failure, the Queue Manager was dropped from the queue-sharing group.
C.During the media failure, the Queue Manager was suspended from processing messages.
D.The 'mqm' User Group was damaged during the media failure.
Correct:A

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NO.14 What service object can utilize the MQSC script command DISPLAY SVSTATUS to display the
status of running service objects?
A.COMMAND object
B.LISTENER object
C.SERVER object
D.QUEUE object
Correct:C

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NO.15 A company is using only WebSphere MQ V6.0 in their complex distributed network. All
messages sent by one application are missing. The WebSphere MQ administrator suspects that
due to an application programming error, the messages are caught in an infinite loop. Which of
the following methods will best help the WebSphere MQ administrator track down the missing
messages?
A.Use Trace-route messaging
B.Enable Activity recording
C.Run the strmqtrc control command to enable tracing on all Queue Managers
D.Check all the Dead Letter Queues on all the Queue Managers
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which command will reload the copy of the key repository which is held in memory, without
restarting a channel process?
A.REFRESH SECURITY TYPE(KEY)
B.REFRESH SECURITY TYPE(SSL)
C.RESET SECURITY TYPE(KEY)
D.RESET SECURITY TYPE(SSL)
Correct:B

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NO.17 A trigger monitor needs to be started and stopped when the queue manager starts and ends.
Where in the WebSphere MQ Explorer V6.0 tooling can this trigger monitor service be defined?
A.On the advanced tab
B.On the listeners tab
C.On the queue manager properties
D.On the services tab
Correct:D

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NO.18 What is the best way to protect WebSphere MQ message data from being read by unauthorized
parties while it travels over an unsecured network?
A.Configure the WebSphere Channels to use SSL security
B.Allow only locally binding applications instead of WebSphere MQ Clients
C.Set the "MQSNOAUT" variable to FALSE
D.WebSphere MQ data can never be read by unauthorized parties
Correct:A

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NO.19 The message flow performance between two Queue Managers is slower than expected. An
application is using a MQPUT call with parameter "MQPER_PERSISTENCE_AS_Q_DEF". The
messages are put onto a local Remote Queue. The properties are detailed below. The Application
messages are not required to survive system failures or restart of the queue managers. dis
qremote('MyAppQueue') all AMQ8409: Display Queue details. QUEUE(MyAppQueue)
TYPE(QREMOTE) ALTDATE(2005-09-21) ALTTIME(13.10.46) CLUSNL( ) CLUSTER( ) CLWLPRTY(3)
CLWLRANK(3) DEFBIND(OPEN) DEFPRTY(5) DEFPSIST(YES) DESCR( My Application Message
Queue on Remote Server) PUT(ENABLED) RQMNAME( ) RNAME(MyAppQueue) SCOPE(QMGR)
XMITQ(QM2) What is the best MQSC command the WebSphere MQ Administrator can use to
improve the message flow performance between the two Queue Managers?
A.No command is valid, as this is an application tuning issue.
B.ALTER QREMOTE('MyAppQueue') CLWLRANK(9)
C.ALTER QREMOTE('MyAppQueue') DEFPRTY(9)
D.ALTER QREMOTE('MyAppQueue') DEFPSIST(NO)
Correct:D

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NO.20 A WebSphere MQ System Administrator desires to change the location of the log files only for
existing UNIX Queue Manger "saturn.queue.manager". The new location of the log files is to be
"/home/mqm/logs". What is the best way to accomplish this task?
A.Edit file /var/mqm/mqs.ini so "LogDefaultPath=/home/mqm/logs"
B.Edit file /var/mqm/qmgrs/saturn!queue!manager/qm.ini so "LogPath=/home/mqm/logs"
C.Issue control command "amqmdain reg saturn.queue.manager -c add -s Log -v LogPath value
=/home/mqm/logs"
D.Issue the control command "crtmqm saturn.queue.manager -ld /home/mqm/logs"
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 000-807
Exam Name: IBM (Web Services Dev for IBM Web Sphere App Server V6.1)
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Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The following WSDL snippet represents which message transmission style?<wsdl:portType .... >
<wsdl:operation name="someOperation"> <wsdl:output name="oname" message="somename"/>
<wsdl:input name="iname" message="anothername"/> </wsdl:operation> </wsdl:portType .... >
A. One-way
B. Request-response
C. Solicit-response
D. Notification
Answer: C

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NO.2 When creating an EJB Web service using the WSDL2Java command, what must be included on the
command line?
A. type ejb
B. implementation ejb
C. container ejb
D. create ejb
Answer: C

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B. The remote interface of the Session EJB must implement the endpoint interface.
C. The Session EJB must have a default EJB create method.
D. The Session EJB must have one or more remote methods.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the output of the Bean2WebService tool?
A. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI) file
B. An EAR file
C. A WSDL file
D. web.xml and webservices.xml files
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a top-down creation of a Web service, what does the WSDL portType map to?
A. A Java method invocation
B. A Stateless session EJB
C. A JAX-RPC mapping
D. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI)
Answer: D

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NO.6 In WebSphere Application Server V6.1, 'trust method' is part of which collection?
A. Required Integrity
B. Required Confidentiality
C. Required security token
D. Caller
E. Add time stamp
Answer: D

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NO.7 For the following SOAP fault, which is a mandatory field that contains a human-readable description
of the fault occurred?<SOAP-ENV:Fault xmlns=""> <faultcode> value1 </faultcode> <faultstring> value2
</faultstring><faultactor> value3 </faultactor><detail> <e:faultNod xmlns:e="http://faultNod"><e:message>
value4 </e:message><e:errorcode> value5 </errorcode>
</e:faultNod> </detail> </SOAP-ENV:Fault>
A. value1
B. value2
C. value3
D. value4
E. value5
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is out of scope for the JSR 921 specification?
A. SOAP 1.1 and SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
B. WSDL 1.1
C. UDDI 1.0
D. Basic reliable message semantics
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which scenario should Web service traffic be secured at the transport level over the message level?
A. Security information must be kept intact from the client to the Web service, regardless of the underlying
transport.
B. Messages are passed between multiple intermediaries, multiple transports.
C. Only parts of the message need to be kept confidential.
D. High performance and security are top concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which task can the _setProperty method in the javax.xml.rpc.Stub interface be used to perform?
A. To configure the document style in the SOAP message
B. To change the parameter of a Web service operation
C. To modify the target service endpoint address
D. To enable Transport Level Security (TLS)
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are the prerequisites for creating a Web service from an EJB using SOAP/HTTP transport in
Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project Deploy the enterprise bean Create an EJB router project
B. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project
C. Create an EJB project Create or import an enterprise bean into the EJB projectDeploy the enterprise
beanCreate a Web project
D. Create an EAR projectCreate an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB projectCreate an EJB router projectDeploy the router project
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which three are WS-Security wizards in Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Add XML Encryption
B. Add XML Signature
C. Add WS Federation
D. Add WS Secure Conversation
E. Add WS Security Policy
F. Add Stand Alone Security Token
G. Add SAML Support
Answer: ABF

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NO.13 Several methods have been proposed for supporting binary data in Web services. Which method is
effectively obsolete at this point?
A. Base 64 Encoding
B. SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
C. WS-Attachments with Direct Internet Message Encapsulation (DIME)
D. Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Answer: C

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NO.14 By default, which security token type does WebSphere Application Server V6.1 NOT support?
A. username token
B. binary security token, including the X.509 certificate
C. LTPA token
D. Kerberos token
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which server-side configuration task should be performed to reduce the chances of a replay attack?
A. Add a binary security token in the Request Generator Configuration -> Security Token section
B. Require a timestamp in the Request Consumer Configuration -> Add Timestamp section
C. Add a nonce word to encrypted parts, through the Request Generator Configuration -> Confidentiality
section
D. Require a nonce word in digital signatures, through the Request Consumer Configuration -> Required
Integrity section
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which interface in SAAJ generically represents any literal part in a SOAP message?
A. javax.xml.soap.Text
B. javax.xml.soap.Node
C. javax.xml.soap.DetailEntry
D. javax.xml.soap.SOAPElement
E. javax.xml.soap.SOAPBodyElement
Answer: D

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NO.17 WSDL faults are mapped to which three Java classes?
A. javax.wsdl.WSDLFault
B. javax.wsdl.WSDLException
C. java.rmi.RemoteException
D. javax.xml.rpc.handler.Exception
E. javax.xml.rpc.soap.SOAPFaultException
F. Service-specific Java exception
Answer: CEF

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NO.18 In addition to usernametoken and digestvalue, which other predefined keywords are supported by
WebSphere Application Server for encryption?
A. bodycontent
B. body
C. timestamp
D. passwordtoken
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which command line utility can be use to create a Web service using a bottom-up approach?
A. Java2WSDL
B. WSDL2Java
C. Java2WS
D. XML2WSDL
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which describes a Java return type for a Java method?
A. <wsdl:message>
B. <wsdl:part>
C. <wsdl:output>
D. <wsdl:fault>
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-315
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Message Broker v6.1, Solution Development)
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NO.1 A Message Broker V6.1 developer receives a request to authenticate and authorize Web service
requests to a message flow with username and password provided as WS-Security username tokens
against a Microsoft Active Directory. Which action must be performed by the developer to fulfill this
request?
A.Set the Use HTTPS property of the SOAPInput node.
B.Add a username token in the WS-Security table of the SOAPInput node.
C.Add a username and a password as user-defined SOAP headers of the SOAPInput node.
D.Nothing, the Message Broker administrator that deploys the message associates the right security
profile.
Answer: D

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NO.2 There is a requirement to integrate Message Broker V6.1 with a messaging system that conforms to
Java Message Service Specification V1.1. Which messaging transport should be used for integration
purposes?
A.MQ Mobile
B.Broker JMS
C.We Services
D.MQ Enterprise
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which node is used to retrieve the WSDL port from WebSphere Service Registry and Repository that
could be used by a message flow to dynamically set the output destination?
A.SOAPRequest
B.HTTPRequest
C.RegistryLookup
D.EndpointLookup
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Message Broker V6.1 developer has been asked to develop a message flow that picks up a file every
minute from ftp server ftp.acme.com with ftpuser as the username and Pa$$w0rd as the password. The
developer has added a FileInput node to the message flow. Which three other tasks need to be
performed?
A.Set Polling interval of FileInput node to: 60.
B.Set ftp.acme.com as FTP server on FileInput node.
C.Set ftpuser as Security identity on FileInput node.
D.Set ftpuser/Pa$$w0rd as Security identity on FileInput node.
E.Issue the "mqsisetdbparms MY_BROKER -n ftp::ftpuser -u ftpuser -p Pa$$w0rd" runtime command.
F.Issue the "mqsicreateconfigurableservice MY_BROKER -c TCPIPServer -o 1452" runtime command.
Answer: B C E

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NO.5 A Message Broker V6.1 developer needs to put an HTTP input message onto an MQ queue for
downstream processing. After clearing the HTTP headers, what is the simplest way to build an MQMD?
A.Write ESQL code to construct an MQMD.
B.Let the MQOutput node build a default MQMD.
C.Use the SOAPExtract node to build an MQMD.
D.Use the ResetContentDescriptor node to build an MQMD.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A message flow developer is familiar with using XPath. The developer must implement a flow that
transforms a message from a COBOL copybook format into a SOAP message. Which two nodes should
the developer use to perform the transformation using XPath?
A.Mapping
B.Extract
C.JavaCompute
D.MQJMSTransform
E.JMSMQTransform
Answer: A C

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NO.7 A message flow has been developed to receive a record with an MQInput node and store it by
appending it to a local file using the FileOutput node. When the message flow is tested by sending five
test messages, only the record from the last message gets stored in the local file. What is the most
probable cause of this behavior?
A.The file already exists in the mqsitransit directory.
B.The FileOutput node does not support appending data to an existing file.
C.The developer did not connect the Finish File terminal of the FileOutput node.
D.The Record definition property of the FileOutput node is set to "Record is Whole File".
Answer: D

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NO.8 A developer who is very familiar with writing XPath expressions in the mapping editor has been asked
to convert several of the company's current message flows. The message flows use mappings to do
message transformation to message flows which use Java to do transformations. Which method call
should be used to help the developer more quickly write code to access messages?
A.callXPath
B.processXPath
C.mappingXPath
D.evaluateXPath
Answer: D

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NO.9 A Message Broker V6.1 developer wants to create a message flow that will act as a Web service. What
does the developer need to utilize to assure the message elements are uniquely identifiable by the
message flow parser?
A.WSDL
B.Namespace
C.HTTP Header
D.SOAP Envelope
Answer: B

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NO.10 A Message Broker V6.1 developer is implementing a message flow with an JMSInput node,
JavaCompute node and a JMSReply node. The logic in the JavaCompute node inserts a record to a
database table using a JDBC Type 4 connection. Which three tasks have to be performed to ensure that
the JMS, the database and the JMS transactions are synchronized?
A.Create the JDBC connection using an XADataSource.
B.Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Local.
C.Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Global.
D.Set the Backout destination of the JMSInput node to hold In-doubt transactions.
E.Use the broker Java API getJDBCType4Connection to initiate the JDBC connection.
F.Configure a XAResourceManager for both the JDBC and JMS connections in the broker's queue
manager.
Answer: C E F

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NO.11 The message flow shown in the Exhibit has been deployed to broker ROUTE_BRKR.
The broker's queue manager does not have a Dead Letter Queue nor a Backout Requeue Queue defined.
Error messages are being written to the local error log reporting there has been a problem with writing
failing persistent messages to queue CATCH.Q used by the CATCH Q node. The
MQMD.BACKOUTCOUNT equals 11 and the Backout threshold equals 5.
In which location should the developer find the failing message?
A.SYSTEM.DEAD.LETTER.QUEUE
B.The queue defined by the FAIL Q node
C.The queue defined by the INPUT Q node
D.In no location, the message is discarded
Answer: C

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NO.12 A flow is being developed to interact with an EIS system using one of the native adapter nodes. As part
of the development process, which artifacts should be dragged onto the flow editor canvas to create the
flow template?
A.WSDL
B.Business Object
C.Message Definition
D.Adapter Connection
Answer: D

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NO.13 A Message Broker V6.1 developer builds a message flow to act as a server for an MQ based
Request/Reply pattern that ends with an MQReply node. If a message is received that does not specify a
ReplyToQueue in the MQMD, what will the MQReply node do?
A.Throw an exception.
B.Put the message on the source queue.
C.Put the message on the backout queue.
D.Put the message on the dead letter queue.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A Message Broker V6.1 developer has been asked to develop a message flow to route
SOAP/HTTP-based Web service requests to the appropriate provider without access to the WSDL of the
providers. Which set of built-in nodes is the most appropriate for implementing this message flow?
A.An HTTPInput node, a Route node, an HTTPRequest node and an HTTPReply node.
B.A SOAPInput node, an EndpointLookup node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply node.
C.A SOAPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply node.
D.An HTTPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, an HTTPRequest node and an HTTPReply node.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which component is the contract that describes to the Message Broker V6.1 developer how to build a
Web service request?
A.WSDL
B.Namespace
C.HTTP Header
D.SOAP Envelope
Answer: A

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NO.16 A Message Broker V6.1 message flow must invoke one out of five different Web services depending
on the content of the input message. Which implementation is the most appropriate to determine the
service provider?
A.Use a Filter node.
B.Establish a filter pattern in a Route node.
C.Dynamically route by using a RouteToLabel node.
D.Include a Compute node to filter based upon ESQL code.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A Message Broker V6.1 developer needs to work with a multipart message that exploits the MIME
standard. Which two mechanisms can be used to parse the content of the MIME parts?
A.Extract node
B.Validate node
C.ASBITSTREAM function
D.ResetContentDescriptor node
E.ESQL to parse the individual parts
Answer: D E

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NO.18 To meet business requirements, a message flow was developed to route activities based upon the
account identifier which contains the value 'Wealth Management'. The flow was developed using a Route
node. Given the filter expressions that have been configured in this node, multiple expressions may be
matched for any particular message. Which configurable property of the Route node would control
whether only one or all matching expressions are satisfied?
AFilters
B.Operator
C.Distribution mode
D.Match dynamic terminal
Answer: C

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NO.19 When designing an online auction store, one of the key architectural decisions made was to handle and
secure Web traffic using Message Broker V6.1. Two important aspects of security need to be addressed
in the solution: authentication and message integrity. Which transport node is the most appropriate for
implementing this scenario?
A.MQ
B.TCP
C.SOAP
D.HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.20 A message flow has been developed with a HTTPInput node (with XMLNSC as Message domain), a
Compute node (with the ESQL-snippet below) and a HTTPReply node. The message shown in the
Exhibit has been posted to the message flow.
DECLARE myRef REFERENCE TO InputRoot.XMLNSC.RoutingMsg.Body.Items[3];
MOVE myRef NEXTSIBLING;
SET OutputRoot.XMLNSC.Test.Name = myRef.Name;
What is the payload returned to the HTTP client?
A.<Test/>
B.<Test Name="Galvanized Washers"/>
C.<Test Name="Galvanized Lock Washers"/>
D.<Test><Name>Galvanized Lock Washers</Name></Test>
Answer: A

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