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Exam Code: 310-600
Exam Name: SUN (SUN SIGMA BLACK BELT CERTIFICATION)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 Which statement guarantees no defects?
A.Z = 6 sigma
B.The part has been modified so that it physically cannot be put together incorrectly
C.All sampled data points are within the upper and lower specification
D.The data histogram is "centered"
Correct:B

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NO.2 What is the best use for the ANOVA test?
A.To complete a least squares regression fit for more than one data set
B.To determine if several samples belong to the same population relative to their mean
C.To determine the variance of a non-normal data set
D.To compare data set normality
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.3 Which is the best tool to show a quantitative comparison of the frequency of occurrence for
different failure modes?
A.QFD
B.Individuals chart
C.Pareto chart
D.Scatter diagram
Correct:C

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.4 Which tool is best for illustrating possible causes for an effect?
A.QFD
B.Fishbone diagram
C.Process flowchart
D.Histogram
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.5 Which is NOT a key objective of "Mobilizing Commitment"?
A.Critical mass must be won over
B.Employees know exactly how their jobs will change
C.Key stakeholders support the change
D.Potential sources of resistance are identified
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with control charts?
A.They demonstrate process performance relative to customer specifications
B.They demonstrate stability and predictability of a process over time
C.They show parameter performance, mean, and control limits
D.They offer early warning of possible problems
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.7 A factorial 2-level DOE does NOT:
A.Confirm possible critical Xs
B.Confirm design parameter impacts on Ys
C.Confirm causes identified by hypothesis tests
D.Confirm best robust design
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.8 In two months, there are 200 defects in 40 units processed. If each unit has 25 opportunities,
what is the process DPMO?
A.200,000
B.400,000
C.800,000
D.1,000,000
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.9 What is a good use for hypothesis testing during the Analyze phase?
A.To determine the current process capability
B.To determine optimum process capability parameters
C.To confirm the validity of a suspected important factor
D.To provide a comparison of CTQs to root causes
Correct:C

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.10 CAP and DMAIC are useful together since:
A.The focus of DMAIC is collecting data and the focus of CAP is to make solutions more sustainable
B.The focus of CAP is collecting data and the focus DMAIC is influencing people to build acceptance
C.The focus of CAP is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of DMAIC is to make solutions
sustainable
D.The focus of DMAIC is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of CAP is to make solutions
sustainable
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.11 What should be included in a good problem/opportunity statement?
A.A description of the causes of the problem
B.A statement of the project improvement goal
C.An assignment of responsibility for the problem
D.The severity of the problem
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.12 A project charter should be:
A.Treated by the team as a fixed contract to be changed only by approval of 51% of the team
B.Treated as a living document which will evolve as new information is discovered
C.Written in precise technical language
D.A brief document 2-3 pages in length
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.13 Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is true?
A.Process output that is not paid for only goes to internal customers
B.External customers should not be privy to project details when working on joint projects
C.Requirements of internal customers will drive more improvement than requirements of external
customers
D.Internal customers are fellow associates who need the process output to carry out their work
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.14 Which statement is a good guideline for brainstorming?
A.Keep the list of ideas manageable by allowing each participant a set number of contributions
B.Establish the objective prior to the brainstorming session
C.Focus on idea quality, rather than quantity
D.Provide a familiar venue for the process
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.15 Which of the following are NOT common pitfalls to the Sun Shot process?
A.Multiple champions
B.Too little time allotted
C.Poor action item accountability
D.Weak sponsorship
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.16 What is the purpose of a pilot?
A.To analyze a process and determine the source of defects
B.To test a solution on a small or limited scale
C.To implement a compromised solution when true consensus cannot be reached
D.To collect baseline data from an existing process
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.17 Calculation of DPO requires knowledge of:
A.The total number of defects and the total number of units
B.Only the total number of defects
C.The total number of defects, the total number of units, the number of opportunities per unit and the
length of the time period studied
D.The total number of defects, the total number of units and the number of opportunities per unit
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.18 Which tool is used to evaluate process variation over time?
A.Pie chart
B.Scatter plot
C.Individuals chart
D.Pareto Chart
Correct:C

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

NO.19 Which of the following is a continuous measure?
A.Total time required to close a deal
B.Count of the number of closed deals from new customers
C.Day of the week a deal is closed
D.Type of deal closed
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam   310-600   310-600

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Exam Code: 212-065
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform, SE 6.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 287 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.2 public void run() {

NO.3 }
Which statement is true?
A. This code can throw an InterruptedException.
B. This code can throw an IllegalMonitorStateException.
C. This code can throw a TimeoutException after ten minutes.
D. Reversing the order of obj.wait() and obj.notify() might cause this method to complete
normally.
E. A call to notify() or notifyAll() from another thread might cause this method to
complete normally.
F. This code does NOT compile unless "obj.wait()" is replaced with "((Thread)
obj).wait()".
Answer: B

SUN   212-065   212-065 test

NO.4 }

NO.5 t.start();

NO.6

NO.7 Given:
1. public class Threads2 implements Runnable {

NO.8 System.out.println("End of method.");

NO.9 }

NO.10 }
Which two can be results? (Choose two.)
A. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
B. run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
C. End of method.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
D. End of method.
run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
E. run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
End of method.
Answer: D, E

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2. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible for more than two threads to deadlock at once.
B. The JVM implementation guarantees that multiple threads cannot enter into a
deadlocked state.
C. Deadlocked threads release once their sleep() method's sleep duration has expired.
D. Deadlocking can occur only when the wait(), notify(), and notifyAll() methods are
used incorrectly.
E. It is possible for a single-threaded application to deadlock if synchronized blocks are
used incorrectly.
F. If a piece of code is capable of deadlocking, you cannot eliminate the possibility of
deadlocking by inserting
invocations of Thread.yield().
Answer: A, F

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3. Given:
7. void waitForSignal() {
8. Object obj = new Object();
9. synchronized (Thread.currentThread()) {
10. obj.wait();
11. obj.notify();
12. }

NO.11 System.out.println("run.");

NO.12 Thread t = new Thread(new Threads2());

NO.13 throw new RuntimeException("Problem");

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SUN certification 310-015 the latest exam questions and answers

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Exam Code: 310-015
Exam Name: SUN (SUN Certified SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9 PART II)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 299 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-04

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NO.1 While configuring NIS on a system, you execute the command string:# domainname
testlab.Region.Org.COM Which two statements about this command are true? (Choose two.)
A. The server's name is testlab, and it resides in the region.org.com domain.
B. Executing this command populates the /etc/defaultdomain file with the domain name.
C. The domain name is case sensitive, and must be configured exactly as specified on this
command-line.
D. The domain name is the entire character string testlab.Region.Org.COM, and no DNS domain is
specified.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 The auto_home automount map is an example of which type of map?
A. xfn
B. direct
C. master
D. generic
E. indirect
Answer: E

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NO.3 You are receiving error messages that the /lard file system is full. You check and see that it has a
large file called swapfile. Your system has more than enough swap space. You suspect that the file is in
use as swap space. Which sequence of commands confirms that the file was in use as swap space, and
helps correct the file system problem?
A. swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
B. swap -l ; swap -d /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
C. swap -l ; rm /lard/swapfile ; swap -d /lard/swapfile
D. swap -l ; swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which situation will Solaris Volume Manager volumes continue to function normally in the event of
the corruption of one copy of its state database?
A. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the master copy of the state database is not
corrupted.
B. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the copy of the state database on the boot
disk is available.
C. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if no more than a single copy of the state
database is corrupted.
D. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if more than half of the copies of the state
database are available.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that
if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting
for the resource to mount.Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?
A. fg
B. ro
C. bg
D. intr
E. soft
F. hard
Answer: C

SUN   310-015 test answers   310-015   310-015

NO.6 You are working on a system connected to the network. You attempt to access a directory which you
know is providedto your system using NFS, and which you have not accessed for some time. Your
system displays the message: stale NFS file handle What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The lockd daemon on the local system is no longer running.
B. The mountd daemon on the local system has out of date configuration information.
C. The automountd daemon has not been informed of changes to the automount maps.
D. The file or directory has been removed on the NFS server without the client's knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which command should be used to create a file system on a virtual volume (d0) under Solaris Volume
Manager control?
A. newfs /dev/rdsk/d0
B. newfs /dev/rdsk/md/d0 C. newfs /dev/md/rdsk/d0
D. newfs -F sds /dev/rdsk/d0
Answer: C

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NO.8 Interlace size is a tunable parameter associated with which three levels of RAID? (Choose three.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 You are working on a system connected to the network. You are attempting to access a currently
mounted NFS directory. Your system displays the message: nfs mount: host1: : NFS: Service not
responding nfs mount: retrying: /usr/share/man What can you do to solve this problem?
A. ensure that nfsd is running on the NFS server
B. ensure that mountd is running on the NFS server
C. send a HUP signal to inetd process on the NFS server
D. send a HUP signal to the rpcbind process on the NFS server
Answer: A

SUN   310-015   310-015

NO.10 The /etc/dfs/dfstab file on your Solaris system contains the entries: share -o log=global /export/home
share -o ro /opt/NSCPcom What is the purpose of the entry global?
A. It specifies that all NFS transactions are logged in the /var/adm/global file.
B. It specifies the tag to send to the syslogd daemon when logging the NFS share.
C. It specifies the logging configuration to use from the NFS logging configuration file.
D. It specifies the file in the /export/home directory in which to record NFS mount requests.
Answer: C

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NO.11 An inexperienced administrator reports to you that they would like to see if a system is a functioning
native LDAPclient. You suggest that they run a command to verify that the system is configured as a
native LDAP client. Whichcommand should you suggest?
A. ldaplist
B. ldapclient -v
C. ldapadd client
D. ldapsearch client
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have two 50-MByte UFS file systems, one located on a single disk, and the other located on a
RAID 1 mirror. Both file systems are full. The RAID 1 mirror uses a round-robin read policy. Statistically,
which is true of the RAID 1 mirror when reading data?
A. The mirror is faster.
B. The mirror is slower.
C. Round-robin read policies are not allowed.
D. The mirror and single disk exhibit the same performance.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Under which two conditions will the automounter automatically mount resources listed in an AutoFS
direct map? (Choose two.)
A. only if the mount point has first been created
B. only if the resources are to be mounted read-only
C. only if the reference used in the direct map uses relative path names
D. only if an entry for the direct map has been added to the master map
E. only if the reference used in the direct map uses absolute path names
Answer: DE

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NO.14 You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What initial action must you take?
A. run a command to create the first state database
B. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9
C. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
D. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
E. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
Answer: A

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NO.15 The default run level is 3 and the host is configured as an NFS server with valid entries in
/etc/dfs/dfstab. Which two command strings restart NFS services? (Choose two.)
A. init 6
B. pkill -HUP inetd
C. /etc/init.d/nfs.server restart
D. /etc/init.d/nfs.server stop;/etc/init.d/nfs.server start
Answer: AD

SUN   310-015 test questions   310-015 questions

NO.16 What can be added to the /etc/vfstab file to automatically mount the /var directory from the NFS server
saturn onto the mount point /test during boot?
A. /var - /test nfs - yes -
B. saturn:/var - /test - yes -
C. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes
D. saturn:/var /test nfs yes
E. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes -
Answer: E

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NO.17 Which two are functions of an NFS client? (Choose two.)
A. runs the nfsd daemon
B. makes resources available over the network
C. mounts remote resources across the network
D. is configured using the /etc/dfs/dfstab file
E. mounts a remote resource and uses it as though it were local
Answer: CE

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NO.18 You have a system used for application development. The process app-rev23 owned by user
epiphylla terminates abnormally. Which two effects can the root user configure? (Choose two.)
A. The process app-rev23 produces no core file at all.
B. The process app-rev23 produces a core file without the string "core" appearing anywhere within the file
name.
C. The process app-rev23 produces a global core file readable by any user in a global /var/corefiles
directory.
D. The process app-rev23 produces a total of three core files, one in the current directory of the process,
one in epiphylla's home directory, and one in a global /var/corefiles directory.
Answer: AB

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NO.19 After creating and adding additional swap space, what should you do to ensure that the swap space is
available following subsequent reboots?
A. You add it as a line entry to the /etc/vfstab file.
B. You modify the startup scripts to include a swap add command.
C. The additional swap space cannot be made available following subsequent reboots.
D. No additional steps are required because the necessary changes are made to the startup file when the
swap space is added.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Solaris Volume Manager offers advantages over storing data in traditional disk slices. What are two of
these advantages? (Choose two.)
A. It facilitates the rotational interleaving of data.
B. It enables the definition of disk usage patterns.
C. It offers the possibility of significant performance improvement.
D. It manages the data to ensure that disk failure does not automatically lead to data loss.
Answer: CD

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310-600 exam study guide

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Exam Code: 310-600
Exam Name: SUN (SUN SIGMA BLACK BELT CERTIFICATION)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-04

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NO.1 Which tool is used to evaluate process variation over time?
A.Pie chart
B.Scatter plot
C.Individuals chart
D.Pareto Chart
Correct:C

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.2 Which of the following are NOT common pitfalls to the Sun Shot process?
A.Multiple champions
B.Too little time allotted
C.Poor action item accountability
D.Weak sponsorship
Correct:A

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.3 Calculation of DPO requires knowledge of:
A.The total number of defects and the total number of units
B.Only the total number of defects
C.The total number of defects, the total number of units, the number of opportunities per unit and the
length of the time period studied
D.The total number of defects, the total number of units and the number of opportunities per unit
Correct:D

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.4 A factorial 2-level DOE does NOT:
A.Confirm possible critical Xs
B.Confirm design parameter impacts on Ys
C.Confirm causes identified by hypothesis tests
D.Confirm best robust design
Correct:D

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.5 What is a good use for hypothesis testing during the Analyze phase?
A.To determine the current process capability
B.To determine optimum process capability parameters
C.To confirm the validity of a suspected important factor
D.To provide a comparison of CTQs to root causes
Correct:C

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.6 A project charter should be:
A.Treated by the team as a fixed contract to be changed only by approval of 51% of the team
B.Treated as a living document which will evolve as new information is discovered
C.Written in precise technical language
D.A brief document 2-3 pages in length
Correct:B

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.7 In two months, there are 200 defects in 40 units processed. If each unit has 25 opportunities,
what is the process DPMO?
A.200,000
B.400,000
C.800,000
D.1,000,000
Correct:A

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.8 What is the best use for the ANOVA test?
A.To complete a least squares regression fit for more than one data set
B.To determine if several samples belong to the same population relative to their mean
C.To determine the variance of a non-normal data set
D.To compare data set normality
Correct:B

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.9 Which is NOT a key objective of "Mobilizing Commitment"?
A.Critical mass must be won over
B.Employees know exactly how their jobs will change
C.Key stakeholders support the change
D.Potential sources of resistance are identified
Correct:B

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.10 What is the purpose of a pilot?
A.To analyze a process and determine the source of defects
B.To test a solution on a small or limited scale
C.To implement a compromised solution when true consensus cannot be reached
D.To collect baseline data from an existing process
Correct:B

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.11 Which statement guarantees no defects?
A.Z = 6 sigma
B.The part has been modified so that it physically cannot be put together incorrectly
C.All sampled data points are within the upper and lower specification
D.The data histogram is "centered"
Correct:B

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.12 Which tool is best for illustrating possible causes for an effect?
A.QFD
B.Fishbone diagram
C.Process flowchart
D.Histogram
Correct:B

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.13 Which is the best tool to show a quantitative comparison of the frequency of occurrence for
different failure modes?
A.QFD
B.Individuals chart
C.Pareto chart
D.Scatter diagram
Correct:C

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.14 Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is true?
A.Process output that is not paid for only goes to internal customers
B.External customers should not be privy to project details when working on joint projects
C.Requirements of internal customers will drive more improvement than requirements of external
customers
D.Internal customers are fellow associates who need the process output to carry out their work
Correct:D

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.15 CAP and DMAIC are useful together since:
A.The focus of DMAIC is collecting data and the focus of CAP is to make solutions more sustainable
B.The focus of CAP is collecting data and the focus DMAIC is influencing people to build acceptance
C.The focus of CAP is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of DMAIC is to make solutions
sustainable
D.The focus of DMAIC is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of CAP is to make solutions
sustainable
Correct:D

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.16 What should be included in a good problem/opportunity statement?
A.A description of the causes of the problem
B.A statement of the project improvement goal
C.An assignment of responsibility for the problem
D.The severity of the problem
Correct:D

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.17 Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with control charts?
A.They demonstrate process performance relative to customer specifications
B.They demonstrate stability and predictability of a process over time
C.They show parameter performance, mean, and control limits
D.They offer early warning of possible problems
Correct:A

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.18 Which of the following is a continuous measure?
A.Total time required to close a deal
B.Count of the number of closed deals from new customers
C.Day of the week a deal is closed
D.Type of deal closed
Correct:A

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

NO.19 Which statement is a good guideline for brainstorming?
A.Keep the list of ideas manageable by allowing each participant a set number of contributions
B.Establish the objective prior to the brainstorming session
C.Focus on idea quality, rather than quantity
D.Provide a familiar venue for the process
Correct:B

SUN   310-600   310-600 exam simulations   310-600

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Exam Code: 310-010
Exam Name: SUN (ACI - Operations Certificate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 342 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-04

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Exam Code: 310-066
Exam Name: SUN (Upgrade EXAM for the Sun Certified for Java Programmer.SE6.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 list.add("foo");

NO.2 Given:
21. class Money {
22. private String country = "Canada";
23. public String getC() { return country; }
24. }
25. class Yen extends Money {
26. public String getC() { return super.country; }
27. }
28. public class Euro extends Money {
29. public String getC(int x) { return super.getC(); }
30. public static void main(String[] args) {
31. System.out.print(new Yen().getC()+ " " + new Euro().getC());
32. }
33. }
What is the result?
A.Canada
B.null Canada
C.Canada null
D.Canada Canada
E.Compilation fails due to an error on line 26.
F.Compilation fails due to an error on line 29.
Answer:E

SUN   310-066   310-066

NO.3 A UNIX user named Bob wants to replace his chess program with a new one, but he is not sure where
the old one is installed. Bob is currently able to run a Java chess program starting from his home directory
/home/bob using the command:
java -classpath /test:/home/bob/downloads/*.jar games.Chess
Bob's CLASSPATH is set (at login time) to:/usr/lib:/home/bob/classes:/opt/java/lib:/opt/java/lib/*.jarWhat is
a possible location for the Chess.class file?
A./test/Chess.class
B./home/bob/Chess.class
C./test/games/Chess.class
D./usr/lib/games/Chess.class
E./home/bob/games/Chess.class
F.inside jarfile /opt/java/lib/Games.jar (with a correct manifest)
G.inside jarfile /home/bob/downloads/Games.jar (with a correct manifest)
Answer:C

SUN   310-066   310-066 answers real questions   310-066 practice test

NO.4 }

NO.5 Given:
10. interface Foo {}
11. class Alpha implements Foo {}
12. class Beta extends Alpha {}
13. class Delta extends Beta {
14. public static void main( String[] args ) {
15. Beta x = new Beta();
16. // insert code here
17. }
18. }
Which code, inserted at line 16, will cause a java.lang.ClassCastException?
A.Alpha a = x;
B.Foo f = (Delta)x;
C.Foo f = (Alpha)x;
D.Beta b = (Beta)(Alpha)x;
Answer:B

SUN   310-066   310-066   310-066   310-066

NO.6 Given:
11. public class Test {
12. public enum Dogs {collie, harrier, shepherd};
13. public static void main(String [] args) {
14. Dogs myDog = Dogs.shepherd;
15. switch (myDog) {
16. case collie:
17. System.out.print("collie ");
18. case default:
19. System.out.print("retriever ");
20. case harrier:
21. System.out.print("harrier ");
22. }
23. }
24. }
What is the result?
A.harrier
B.shepherd
C.retriever
D.Compilation fails.
E.retriever harrier
F.An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer:D

SUN test questions   310-066 test answers   310-066   310-066

NO.7 }
Which two code fragments, inserted independently at line 5, will compile without warnings? (Choose two.)
A.public void addStrings(List list) {B.public void addStrings(List list) {C.public void addStrings(List list)
{D.public void addStrings(List list) {
Answer: BC

SUN test   310-066   310-066 exam simulations

NO.8 Given:
3. import java.util.*;
4. public class Hancock {
5. // insert code here

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Exam Code: 310-600
Exam Name: SUN (SUN SIGMA BLACK BELT CERTIFICATION)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

310-600 Free Demo Download: http://www.itcertking.com/310-600_exam.html

NO.1 Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is true?
A.Process output that is not paid for only goes to internal customers
B.External customers should not be privy to project details when working on joint projects
C.Requirements of internal customers will drive more improvement than requirements of external
customers
D.Internal customers are fellow associates who need the process output to carry out their work
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.2 What is the purpose of a pilot?
A.To analyze a process and determine the source of defects
B.To test a solution on a small or limited scale
C.To implement a compromised solution when true consensus cannot be reached
D.To collect baseline data from an existing process
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.3 What should be included in a good problem/opportunity statement?
A.A description of the causes of the problem
B.A statement of the project improvement goal
C.An assignment of responsibility for the problem
D.The severity of the problem
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.4 Which is the best tool to show a quantitative comparison of the frequency of occurrence for
different failure modes?
A.QFD
B.Individuals chart
C.Pareto chart
D.Scatter diagram
Correct:C

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.5 A project charter should be:
A.Treated by the team as a fixed contract to be changed only by approval of 51% of the team
B.Treated as a living document which will evolve as new information is discovered
C.Written in precise technical language
D.A brief document 2-3 pages in length
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.6 Which statement is a good guideline for brainstorming?
A.Keep the list of ideas manageable by allowing each participant a set number of contributions
B.Establish the objective prior to the brainstorming session
C.Focus on idea quality, rather than quantity
D.Provide a familiar venue for the process
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.7 CAP and DMAIC are useful together since:
A.The focus of DMAIC is collecting data and the focus of CAP is to make solutions more sustainable
B.The focus of CAP is collecting data and the focus DMAIC is influencing people to build acceptance
C.The focus of CAP is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of DMAIC is to make solutions
sustainable
D.The focus of DMAIC is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of CAP is to make solutions
sustainable
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.8 Calculation of DPO requires knowledge of:
A.The total number of defects and the total number of units
B.Only the total number of defects
C.The total number of defects, the total number of units, the number of opportunities per unit and the
length of the time period studied
D.The total number of defects, the total number of units and the number of opportunities per unit
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with control charts?
A.They demonstrate process performance relative to customer specifications
B.They demonstrate stability and predictability of a process over time
C.They show parameter performance, mean, and control limits
D.They offer early warning of possible problems
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.10 Which of the following is a continuous measure?
A.Total time required to close a deal
B.Count of the number of closed deals from new customers
C.Day of the week a deal is closed
D.Type of deal closed
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.11 Which of the following are NOT common pitfalls to the Sun Shot process?
A.Multiple champions
B.Too little time allotted
C.Poor action item accountability
D.Weak sponsorship
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.12 Which statement guarantees no defects?
A.Z = 6 sigma
B.The part has been modified so that it physically cannot be put together incorrectly
C.All sampled data points are within the upper and lower specification
D.The data histogram is "centered"
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.13 What is a good use for hypothesis testing during the Analyze phase?
A.To determine the current process capability
B.To determine optimum process capability parameters
C.To confirm the validity of a suspected important factor
D.To provide a comparison of CTQs to root causes
Correct:C

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.14 A factorial 2-level DOE does NOT:
A.Confirm possible critical Xs
B.Confirm design parameter impacts on Ys
C.Confirm causes identified by hypothesis tests
D.Confirm best robust design
Correct:D

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.15 Which is NOT a key objective of "Mobilizing Commitment"?
A.Critical mass must be won over
B.Employees know exactly how their jobs will change
C.Key stakeholders support the change
D.Potential sources of resistance are identified
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.16 Which tool is used to evaluate process variation over time?
A.Pie chart
B.Scatter plot
C.Individuals chart
D.Pareto Chart
Correct:C

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.17 In two months, there are 200 defects in 40 units processed. If each unit has 25 opportunities,
what is the process DPMO?
A.200,000
B.400,000
C.800,000
D.1,000,000
Correct:A

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.18 Which tool is best for illustrating possible causes for an effect?
A.QFD
B.Fishbone diagram
C.Process flowchart
D.Histogram
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

NO.19 What is the best use for the ANOVA test?
A.To complete a least squares regression fit for more than one data set
B.To determine if several samples belong to the same population relative to their mean
C.To determine the variance of a non-normal data set
D.To compare data set normality
Correct:B

SUN   310-600 exam dumps   310-600   310-600

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SUN certification 310-811 the latest exam questions and answers

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Exam Code: 310-811
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Part II)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Assuming that the account 'joe'@'%' does not already exist on the server, executing the statement
mysql> CREATE USER 'joe'@'%' IDENTIFIED BY 'sakila'
will have the following consequences:
A. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. However, clients cannot connect using this account
until further privileges have been assigned to the account.
B. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account,
but will not be able to access any databases, tables or stored routines
C. The account 'joe'@'%' is created on the server. Clients may connect to the server using this account
and execute stored routines, but will not be able to access any databases or tables
D. Nothing; there is no such command as CREATE USER
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment |
| Name | char(35) | | | | |
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | | |
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause. A
temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have been granted SELECT, INSERT and DELETE privileges on the table city in the world
database. You log in, and exercise all your privileges without any problems.
While you are still connected and doing work, the administrator removes your DELETE privileges and
informs you by mail that you can no longer delete from table city.
Being skeptical, you decided to test your privileges and realize that you still have them all. What is are the
most likely causes of this?
A. The administrator forgot to revoke your UPDATE privilege
B. The administrator forgot to revoke your SELECT privilege
C. The administrator removed the DELETE privilege by performing an UPDATE directly on the
mysql.table_priv table
D. The administrator did not execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES
Answer: CD

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NO.4 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

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NO.5 Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE.
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.11 Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world.City to it and preload the index?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A

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NO.13 With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same
as the login used to access the operating system.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.15 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed
later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B

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NO.17 How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the
changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does
editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: BCD

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NO.19 Privileges for using stored routines can be specified at the following levels:
A. Server-wide
B. Per database
C. Per routine
D. The ability to use stored procedures is not governed by the privilege system.
Answer: ABC

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NO.20 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 310-015
Exam Name: SUN (SUN Certified SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9 PART II)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 299 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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NO.1 Interlace size is a tunable parameter associated with which three levels of RAID? (Choose three.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Which two are functions of an NFS client? (Choose two.)
A. runs the nfsd daemon
B. makes resources available over the network
C. mounts remote resources across the network
D. is configured using the /etc/dfs/dfstab file
E. mounts a remote resource and uses it as though it were local
Answer: CE

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NO.3 An inexperienced administrator reports to you that they would like to see if a system is a functioning
native LDAPclient. You suggest that they run a command to verify that the system is configured as a
native LDAP client. Whichcommand should you suggest?
A. ldaplist
B. ldapclient -v
C. ldapadd client
D. ldapsearch client
Answer: A

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NO.4 Solaris Volume Manager offers advantages over storing data in traditional disk slices. What are two of
these advantages? (Choose two.)
A. It facilitates the rotational interleaving of data.
B. It enables the definition of disk usage patterns.
C. It offers the possibility of significant performance improvement.
D. It manages the data to ensure that disk failure does not automatically lead to data loss.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 What can be added to the /etc/vfstab file to automatically mount the /var directory from the NFS server
saturn onto the mount point /test during boot?
A. /var - /test nfs - yes -
B. saturn:/var - /test - yes -
C. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes
D. saturn:/var /test nfs yes
E. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes -
Answer: E

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NO.6 The auto_home automount map is an example of which type of map?
A. xfn
B. direct
C. master
D. generic
E. indirect
Answer: E

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NO.7 You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that
if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting
for the resource to mount.Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?
A. fg
B. ro
C. bg
D. intr
E. soft
F. hard
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What initial action must you take?
A. run a command to create the first state database
B. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9
C. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
D. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
E. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
Answer: A

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NO.9 Under which two conditions will the automounter automatically mount resources listed in an AutoFS
direct map? (Choose two.)
A. only if the mount point has first been created
B. only if the resources are to be mounted read-only
C. only if the reference used in the direct map uses relative path names
D. only if an entry for the direct map has been added to the master map
E. only if the reference used in the direct map uses absolute path names
Answer: DE

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NO.10 You are receiving error messages that the /lard file system is full. You check and see that it has a
large file called swapfile. Your system has more than enough swap space. You suspect that the file is in
use as swap space. Which sequence of commands confirms that the file was in use as swap space, and
helps correct the file system problem?
A. swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
B. swap -l ; swap -d /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
C. swap -l ; rm /lard/swapfile ; swap -d /lard/swapfile
D. swap -l ; swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have two 50-MByte UFS file systems, one located on a single disk, and the other located on a
RAID 1 mirror. Both file systems are full. The RAID 1 mirror uses a round-robin read policy. Statistically,
which is true of the RAID 1 mirror when reading data?
A. The mirror is faster.
B. The mirror is slower.
C. Round-robin read policies are not allowed.
D. The mirror and single disk exhibit the same performance.
Answer: A

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NO.12 The /etc/dfs/dfstab file on your Solaris system contains the entries: share -o log=global /export/home
share -o ro /opt/NSCPcom What is the purpose of the entry global?
A. It specifies that all NFS transactions are logged in the /var/adm/global file.
B. It specifies the tag to send to the syslogd daemon when logging the NFS share.
C. It specifies the logging configuration to use from the NFS logging configuration file.
D. It specifies the file in the /export/home directory in which to record NFS mount requests.
Answer: C

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NO.13 After creating and adding additional swap space, what should you do to ensure that the swap space is
available following subsequent reboots?
A. You add it as a line entry to the /etc/vfstab file.
B. You modify the startup scripts to include a swap add command.
C. The additional swap space cannot be made available following subsequent reboots.
D. No additional steps are required because the necessary changes are made to the startup file when the
swap space is added.
Answer: A

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NO.14 In which situation will Solaris Volume Manager volumes continue to function normally in the event of
the corruption of one copy of its state database?
A. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the master copy of the state database is not
corrupted.
B. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the copy of the state database on the boot
disk is available.
C. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if no more than a single copy of the state
database is corrupted.
D. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if more than half of the copies of the state
database are available.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have a system used for application development. The process app-rev23 owned by user
epiphylla terminates abnormally. Which two effects can the root user configure? (Choose two.)
A. The process app-rev23 produces no core file at all.
B. The process app-rev23 produces a core file without the string "core" appearing anywhere within the file
name.
C. The process app-rev23 produces a global core file readable by any user in a global /var/corefiles
directory.
D. The process app-rev23 produces a total of three core files, one in the current directory of the process,
one in epiphylla's home directory, and one in a global /var/corefiles directory.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 You are working on a system connected to the network. You attempt to access a directory which you
know is providedto your system using NFS, and which you have not accessed for some time. Your
system displays the message: stale NFS file handle What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The lockd daemon on the local system is no longer running.
B. The mountd daemon on the local system has out of date configuration information.
C. The automountd daemon has not been informed of changes to the automount maps.
D. The file or directory has been removed on the NFS server without the client's knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.17 While configuring NIS on a system, you execute the command string:# domainname
testlab.Region.Org.COM Which two statements about this command are true? (Choose two.)
A. The server's name is testlab, and it resides in the region.org.com domain.
B. Executing this command populates the /etc/defaultdomain file with the domain name.
C. The domain name is case sensitive, and must be configured exactly as specified on this
command-line.
D. The domain name is the entire character string testlab.Region.Org.COM, and no DNS domain is
specified.
Answer: CD

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NO.18 Which command should be used to create a file system on a virtual volume (d0) under Solaris Volume
Manager control?
A. newfs /dev/rdsk/d0
B. newfs /dev/rdsk/md/d0 C. newfs /dev/md/rdsk/d0
D. newfs -F sds /dev/rdsk/d0
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are working on a system connected to the network. You are attempting to access a currently
mounted NFS directory. Your system displays the message: nfs mount: host1: : NFS: Service not
responding nfs mount: retrying: /usr/share/man What can you do to solve this problem?
A. ensure that nfsd is running on the NFS server
B. ensure that mountd is running on the NFS server
C. send a HUP signal to inetd process on the NFS server
D. send a HUP signal to the rpcbind process on the NFS server
Answer: A

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NO.20 The default run level is 3 and the host is configured as an NFS server with valid entries in
/etc/dfs/dfstab. Which two command strings restart NFS services? (Choose two.)
A. init 6
B. pkill -HUP inetd
C. /etc/init.d/nfs.server restart
D. /etc/init.d/nfs.server stop;/etc/init.d/nfs.server start
Answer: AD

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