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Exam Code: 250-310
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 318 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each
group. How many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in
the environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,C,D

Symantec   250-310 questions   250-310

NO.3 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: A,B,E

Symantec   250-310   250-310

NO.4 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.7 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be
installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.12 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. Break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. Configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. Select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. Add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: A,B,C

Symantec   250-310   250-310   250-310   250-310

NO.21 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.22 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.23 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.24 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.25 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.26 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.27 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

Symantec test answers   250-310   250-310

NO.28 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.29 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.30 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-252
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.2 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.5 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

Symantec   250-252   250-252   250-252

NO.12 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.14 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-141
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

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NO.2 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator needs to use the Agent for VMware and Hyper-V to protect a VMware virtual machine
hosting Microsoft Exchange. The administrator needs to restore granular application objects, such as
emails, from the backup sets that are captured from the virtual machine hosting Exchange. Which action
should the administrator take before configuring a backup definition for the virtual machine hosting
Exchange?
A. run the Exchange optimizer utility
B. manually install VMware tools on the virtual machine
C. install the Agent for Windows on the virtual machine hosting Exchange
D. manually truncate Exchange transaction logs
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which
two sources? (Select two.)
A. all differential backups
B. all full backups
C. most recent snap
D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled
E. most recent full backup
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in
"Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery
Technology" be modified? (Select two.)
A. when the default path is the system volume
B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter
C. when the default path is NTFS
D. when the default path is FAT32
E. when the default path contains the Windows page file
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator plans to use Symantec Backup Exec 2012 data deduplication capabilities to protect a
Hyper-V environment. The administrator needs to leverage client-side deduplication and image-based
backups of the Hyper-V virtual machines. How does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 accomplish this task?
A. The Agent for Windows installed on the Hyper-V host performs client-side deduplication.
B. Backup data is deduplicated "in flight" during transport to the Symantec Backup Exec server.
C. Hyper-V virtual machines use the .VHD format for virtual disks, which is deduplicated by definition.
D. The PureDisk client installed to the Hyper-V secondary server performs client-side deduplication.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator needs to restore multiple emails from a GRT enabled backup of Exchange to a file.
Which file format will be created?
A. .MSG
B. .CAB
C. .PST
D. .OST
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
to Microsoft Active Directory? (Select two.)
A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

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NO.13 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

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NO.14 A job runs with a custom error-handling rule in addition to the default error-handing rule. What will
happen?
A. The custom error-handling rule will apply.
B. The default error-handling rule will apply.
C. The job will fail.
D. The administrator will be prompted to select the rule.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?
A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec
B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data
C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs
D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-202
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Mobile Management Suite (CMS/ITMS) (March 2013) STS)
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 Which option does an administrator apply to content without requiring a content policy?
A. Allow Offline Access
B. Fail-safe Revocation Timer
C. Auto Upgrade
D. Content Expiry
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which iOS profile type allows configuration of Exchange ActiveSync account in the native iOS
email client?
A. SCEP
B. EAS
C. iCal
D. Email
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which type of content is impossible to include in and distribute through the SMM Mobile
Library?
A. PDF
B. Visio
C. spreadsheet
D. YouTube video link
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which policies are supported by Windows Phone 7.5?
A. Device restrictions for networking
B. SCEP profiles for certificates
C. iCal and POP/SMTP email
D. Only settings sent via EAS policies
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two options does an administrator use to specify if profiles can be removed from an iOS
device? (Select two.)
A. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy without specifying a password
B. the device user can be restricted from removing all policies from a device
C. the device user can be restricted from removing a specific policy from a device
D. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy by specifying a password
E. the device user can be prompted to contact the administrator to remove a policy
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which action must an administrator perform to install Mobile Management on a Symantec
Mobile
Management Server (Site Server)?
A. log into the Symantec Management Console from the Site Server > download the necessary
files > install Symantec Mobile Management
B. download and launch the Symantec Installation Manager from Symantec's website on the Site
Server > install Symantec Mobile Management
C. install Symantec Agent on the Site Server > rollout the install to the Site Server from the
Symantec Management Console
D. push the installer to the Site Server from the Symantec Management Console > run the
UpdateSiteServer.exe that is on the Consoles Desktop
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does the acronym "GCM" stand for and how is it used?
A. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to generate certificates
B. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to generate certificates
C. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
D. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
Answer: D

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NO.8 It is possible to enable a user to enroll their device with an e-mail address rather than an
enrollment URL in both the Symantec Mobile Management for Configuration Manager 2007 and
Symantec Mobile Management for SMP products. What step is necessary to enable a mobile
device user to enroll with their e-mail address rather than an enrollment URL?
A. attach the device to the internal network to allow email enrollment
B. add a new text record to the DNS server(s)
C. add an attribute to the Active Directory user object enabling email enrollment
D. attach the device to an external network to allow email enrollment
Answer: B

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NO.9 What tool must an administrator generate to allow access to reporting data from an external
source?
A. Data API Access Key
B. One Time Password
C. OAuth Token
D. LDAP login
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which file types are unacceptable for encrypted previews?
A. .doc, .docx
B. .xls, .xlsx
C. .pdf
D. .mp3, .mp4
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-085
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 200 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-04

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NO.1 What information must be obtained prior to product deployment and configuration of the Symantec
Security Information Manager appliance?
A.which on-box collectors are appropriate for installation
B.the number of nodes found in the customer's infrastructure
C.the number of security events per day the appliance will handle
D.the air-conditioning and power requirements
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are all on-box collectors?
A.PIX, UNIX Syslog and Data Leakage Prevention
B.Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C.PIX, Snort and Symantec Web Gateway
D.Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Control Compliance Suite
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which component escalates security events into incidents?
A.rules
B.events
C.incidents
D.tickets
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the Correlation Engine analyze events against once all rules are properly defined?
A.the rule criteria, create triggers, and correlate conclusions into incidents
B.false positives, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
C.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
D.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and send conclusions to the database
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which database houses incidents and summary data?
A.Oracle
B.MySQL
C.MSSQL
D.IBM DB2
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which third-party software components support LDAP for users, roles, and configurations?
A.IBM Directory Server
B.Microsoft Active Directory Server
C.IBM DB2 8.1
D.IBM DB2 8.2
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where do Symantec Security Information Manager collectors send events?
A.Event Disposition
B.Event Archive
C.Event Reporting
D.Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which tab on the Information Manager Console allows you to view threat and vulnerability information?
A.Rules
B.Dashboard
C.Reports
D.Intelligence
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which component sends events to the Event Service for processing?
A.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) collector
B.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box collector
C.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) off-box collector
D.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) agent
Answer: C

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NO.10 Symantec Security Information Manager Series Appliance installs which operating system by default?
A.Solaris
B.Windows
C.SUSE
D.Red Hat
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following vendor hardware is recommended to use with Symantec Security Information
Manager (SSIM)?
A.IBM
B.NEC
C.Dell
D.Hitachi
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are the specified minimum hardware requirements for installing and running the Symantec
Security Information Manager Console?
A.1 GB RAM and 1 GB disk space
B.1 GB RAM and 512 MB disk space
C.512 MB RAM and 1 GB disk space
D.512 MB RAM and 103 MB disk space
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the difference between Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box and off-box
collectors?
A.Off-box collectors are installed on the SSIM products and on-box collectors are installed on the
appliance.
B.On-box collectors are installed prior to SSIM software installation and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
C.On-box collectors are automatically installed with the SSIM software and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
D.Off-box collectors are installed on the appliance and on-box collectors are installed on assets.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content in near-realtime
from Symantec?
A.LiveUpdate
B.LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C.Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D.Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is Device-level aggregation?
A.parsing data with data sensors
B.grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C.forwarding event data to the appliance
D.event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are the hard drive specifications for the hardware?
A.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 5)
B.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 10)
C.6 drives (RAID 5)
D.2 drives (mirrored)
Answer: A

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NO.17 What information is necessary to properly size a deployment?
A.hard drive space, events per second and geographic locations
B.events per second,collector types and incident-to-event ratio
C.hard drive space, incidents per second and collector types
D.events per second, geographic locations and event-to-incident ratio
Answer: D

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NO.18 On which two operating systems can the Symantec Security Information Manager Agent be installed?
(Select two.)
A.Solaris 9
B.Windows 2000
C.Centos
D.IBM AIX 5
E.HP-UX 11
Answer: AB

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NO.19 Which OS listed does hardware used for the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) image
support?
A.SUSE
B.Centos
C.Redhat
D.SE Linux
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the purpose of the critical business assets management feature?
A.It enables automatic identification and prioritization of security threats that impact business-critical
applications.
B.It obtains an overview of business assets.
C.It makes it possible to change collectors' configurations to meet business assets needs.
D.It provides a visual picture of where critical business assets are located.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-253
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix )
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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-04

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NO.1 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.4 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.6 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.9 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.10 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

Symantec   250-253 test questions   250-253   250-253

NO.13 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-271
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-04

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NO.1 An organization is installing a Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server and the license key is
unavailable during the installation process. What will be the result of the installation?
A. All features will be enabled for a 30-day evaluation period.
B. Only core functionality will be enabled.
C. Installation of the master server will fail.
D. Symantec NetBackup services will fail to start on the master server until a license key is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which default Windows Open File Backup method is used during a backup for a newly installed
Symantec NetBackup 7.5 Windows 2003 client.?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. snapshot provider configured in Global Client Attribute
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 environment by adding a new media server. What
is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media server
information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. run the install_bp script
D. run the install_client_files script
Answer: B

Symantec   250-271   250-271   250-271

NO.5 Which two tasks does the catalog backup perform? (Select two.)
A. ensures the catalog backup is created in a safe location
B. automatically assigns tapes to the CatalogBackup pool
C. appends to existing data on tape
D. backs up the catalog only when there are no client backups in progress
E. copies the NBDB to a staging area before backing it up
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a Standardpolicy type for synthetic backups. What is
required for a successful Synthetic Full if the client is offline?
A. successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
B. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
C. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
D. successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which command is used to manually register a new media server with the database on the master
server?
A. nbemmcmd
B. nbdevconfig
C. bpminlicense
D. bpsetconfig
Answer: A

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NO.9 A backup job failed. The backup administrator needs to collect log files for the services and daemons
that use Unified-style logging. Which step must be performed by the backup administrator before sending
the collected log files to Symantec technical support for analysis?
A. create log directories for the Symantec NetBackup services and daemons
B. set the Global logging level setting to a value of 5
C. run nbsu on the master server
D. run nbcplogs on the master server
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
A. ftp_to_client
B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B

Symantec   250-271 answers real questions   250-271

NO.11 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. Disk Staging
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

Symantec   250-271   250-271

NO.12 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.13 An organization needs to automatically back up a server's data every other Sunday with a backup start
window from 7:00 PM to 10:00 PM. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this
backup schedule be configured to ensure it runs every other Sunday at 7:00 PM?
A. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days
Answer: D

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NO.14 An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
NetBackup media server is being used to perform a backup of the catalog. Which Symantec NetBackup
version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
A. 6.5, 7.0, or 7.1
B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B

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NO.15 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-200
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec System Recovery 2013 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-04

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