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Exam Code: ST0-100
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

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NO.4 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

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NO.7 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

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NO.12 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

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NO.13 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.14 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

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NO.15 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.17 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: ASC-066
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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NO.4 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

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NO.5 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.8 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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NO.9 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

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NO.14 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.16 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

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NO.18 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

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NO.20 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-402
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application from
running on company computers. Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented
from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.2 A group of computers are received from a computer manufacturer with a list of corresponding MAC
addresses. To facilitate the imaging of the computers, the list is modified and then imported to
Deployment Solution, creating new computer accounts. In a lab, all computers are started and booted into
WinPE automation. In the console, a job is assigned to each computer appropriate to its hardware; but the
computers never get the tasks or run the jobs. What is a likely reason for this behavior?
A. The number of concurrent tasks assigned for imaging is overwhelming the SQL server.
B. The computer records in the database are missing necessary key information to properly identify the
computers.
C. The network addresses assigned to the computers in the lab are outside the SBS configured ranges.
D. New computers must first check in and be given a GUID in the console before being assigned a name
and corresponding jobs or tasks.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator needs to use the Deployment Solution task listed below in a job that will be used to
capture an image of a computer running Windows XP. Prepare for Image capture Which two configuration
steps must be completed before the task can be created? (Select two.)
A. enable PXE
B. create a system configuration
C. create a sysprep token
D. upload the applicable deploy.cab file
E. add an OS license key
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management.? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog. There is a duplicate for a
software resource. The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and
selected the option to merge duplicate resources. What will happen to the duplicate entries in the
Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate is deleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the newest
timestamp is deleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry with the
oldest timestamp is deleted.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator
determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The
administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would
be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software
Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)
A. Service Desk
B. CMDB Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Wise Package Studio Professional
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 A patch administrator is preparing to deploy new patches. The administrator needs to avoid applying
Microsoft updates to the wrong operating systems. How should the administrator deploy the patches?
A. by creating a Software Update policy to distribute the updates
B. by configuring the Import Patch Data for Microsoft task and only including applicable updates
C. by staging the update for each operating system in the test environment
D. by only applying updates to the Target with applicable computers when creating a Software Update
policy
Answer: A

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NO.9 A software was virtualized during a Managed Software Delivery installation. Which method must be
used to manage the layer?
A. Virtual Composer task
B. Software Virtualization Command task
C. Package Delivery task
D. Quick Delivery task
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert
Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which
policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.11 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be updated.
Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have been updated,
the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the database. However,
after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an old date instead
of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because several
policies were modified at the same time.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though the
agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints across a
company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification Server is
slower during the inventory scan times. Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to
reduce the processing impact on the Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weekly schedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed
Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What
should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.15 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire 2099" has
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company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also
been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email
about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application. B.Inventory
Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application is executed.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.7 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.9 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.11 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.13 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.14 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.15 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.16 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.20 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.21 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.22 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.23 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.27 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.28 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.30 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment )
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Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.5 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.8 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.11 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.12 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-406
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 173 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x properties must be modified to
collect data
from Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. esa.icp.collection.ev.index_level
B. esa.icp.collection.ev.content.defaultRetrieveTimeoutSecs
C. esa.common.db.dbname
D. esa.threader.ITD.distribution.enabled
E. esa.ic.ev.collection.max_outstanding_pending_batches
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x needs to run with an account that has read
permissions
for the archives in Symantec Enterprise Vault.
Which service should have credentials changed to enable this?
A. EsaPstCrawlerService
B. EsaApplicationService
C. EsaEvCrawlerService
D. EsaEvRetrieverService
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Case Team needs to find all emails sent from Joe Chen to Jun Lee. The search should be
formulated
to return messages that were sent from Joe Chen directly to Jun Lee, or when Jun Lee was cc'd or
bcc'd.
If available, the Case Team wants to leave the default setting to search contained
senders/recipients.
Which search method should the Case Team use?
A. use a Participants search, search emails From participant Joe Chen and To participant Jun Lee
B. search and return all documents, and select Joe Chen from the Sender filter and Jun Lee from the
Recipient filter
C. use a Keywords search, search for participants Joe Chen AND Jun Lee, and under "Fields to
search"
select "Senders and Recipients"
D. use a Participants search, search emails from participant Joe Chen and with participant Jun Lee as
recipient
Answer: D

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NO.4 The mail server used by the Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x has been changed to
a new
server during an organization's Exchange migration. New hold notices are now failing.
Which configuration changes should be made in the system area?
A. in the Email Servers page, update SMTP Server host name
B. in the General page, update SMTP Server host name
C. in the General page, update Confirmation Server host name
D. in the General page, update Admin Server host name
Answer: B

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x System Manager needs to collect data from a file
share
that includes previously collected and stored custodian data. During the collection, the System
Manager
must assign the correct custodian to the data. The exhibit displays the Directory structure for the
stored
data.
Which value should be placed in the custodian path in the collection properties to ensure that the
folder
named after each custodian is used as the custodian assignment?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.6 An organization needs OCR run against a set of TIFF image files as part of a larger data load.
How
should this be accomplished?
A. OCR should be configured to run during initial indexing with all image file types selected.
B. OCR should be configured to run during initial indexing with only TIFF image file types selected.
C. OCR should be turned off during initial indexing and then run against a search result set of all
documents with indexed text.
D. OCR should be turned off during initial indexing and then run against a search result set of the
TIFF
images.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is purpose of the File Based Search in Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x?
A. to run searches that cannot be run via the search UI due to term expansion limitations
B. to provide a way to export only the "Keywords" section data to a CSV file
C. a new way to produce tangible evidence of the Legal Hold notifications that have been created,
their
status, and the custodian actions
D. to place a "hold" on information in its current Enterprise Vault location without collecting or
copying the
data
Answer: C

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NO.8 A System Manager needs to import custodians from the Employee List area using the Import
All from
Active Directory menu option. The System Manager receives the message "No Active Directory
users to
import."
Which task needs to be performed for the import to work successfully?
A. run Active Directory discovery from All Collections Sources area
B. run Active Directory discovery from Email Servers page in System area
C. add Active Directory Domain to crawl as source on the Settings page
D. add Active Directory global catalog server as source first on the Settings page
Answer: B

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NO.9 A Case User needs to run a search with 20 terms. The Case User has the option of including
these
terms on one line or placing each of the 20 terms on a separate query row.
What are two advantages of placing the terms on separate query rows? (Select two.)
A. The user can create a saved search and choose to Highlight Terms if the terms are on separate
query
rows.
B. The user can view the terms' stemmed variations if the terms are on separate query rows.
C. The user can create a search report that includes more specific details about each search term.
D. The user can use Search Filters to view the list of words and corresponding documents hit.
E. The user can de-select stemming for each term if the terms are on separate query rows.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 A legal department asks the Case Team to add a survey question to an existing survey.
How should the Case Team proceed?
A. create a new Custodian Notice with the new survey question and send it to custodians
B. edit an existing Custodian Notice and add question to the existing notice
C. create a System Admin notice with the new survey question and send it to custodians
D. delete the existing notice, create a new notice, and send it to custodians
Answer: A

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NO.11 During an early case assessment, it appears that emails of interest are using code words. The
terms
"Red Dog," "Black Cat," and "Green Parrot" appear often in the emails. However, if the word "pet"
appears,
the message is irrelevant.
Which syntax will search for any of the phrases mentioned without the word "pet"?
A. ("Red Dog" OR "Black Cat" OR "Green Parrot") NOT pet
B. ("Red Dog" or "Black Cat" or "Green Parrot") not pet
C. ("Red Dog" OR "Black Cat" OR "Green Parrot") W/O pet
D. ("Red Dog" or "Black Cat" or "Green Parrot") w/o pet
Answer: A

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NO.12 A Case Team needs to search for all items that include the word "jasmin" because it refers to a
project
that is under investigation. The Case Team also wants to include variations such as "jasmen,"
"jasmine,"
and "jasminum". In addition to running the search now, the search will be saved and run after
additional
data has been added. Stemming is enabled for this case.
Which search syntax or functionality should be used?
A. jasmin
B. jasm*
C. jasm?
D. jasm???
Answer: B

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NO.13 An organization plans to switch from Microsoft Exchange to an Open Source mail platform.
The
organization will replace Outlook on all user machines with a new mail program that stores
messages in
the MBOX format.
Which workflow should the System Manager implement to properly process email from the new
system?
A. collect the mail and leave it in its MBOX format, as Clearwell can process mail in the MBOX
format
B. collect the mail, leave it in its MBOX format, and have it converted to Outlook (PST) by a third
party
before processing in Clearwell
C. employ a third-party software solution to convert the MBOX files to Outlook (PST), then process
the
converted files in Clearwell
D. collect the mail and prepare to review it in its native format, then convert only responsive
messages to
Outlook (PST) for processing in Clearwell
Answer: A

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NO.14 The Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x should use separate Confirmation and Admin
servers
for the Legal Hold module for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. to avoid a disparity in the number of custodians allocated for the Legal Hold and Collections
modules
B. to provide a secure Legal Hold environment
C. to use a separate Confirmation and Admin server as required by the Legal Hold module
D. to minimize processing interruptions of either the Confirmation or Admin server
E. to meet Clearwell System Requirements that the Confirmation server uses a different OS than the
Admin server
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 A Case Team receives an email indicating that ongoing updates will be added to each
employee profile
in a Windows domain that is of particular interest to custodian data in the Symantec Clearwell
eDiscovery
Platform 7.x.
What should the Case Team implement in the Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x to ensure
that
each custodian profile is updated when the new field is added?
A. Scheduled Backup
B. Scheduled Active Directory Discovery
C. Scheduled Bulk Source Import
D. LDAP Configuration Tester
Answer: B

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NO.16 A System Manager needs to collect from Symantec Enterprise Vault but is permitted to
perform the
collection only between 9 p.m. in the evening and 1 a.m. in the morning; however, the amount of
data that
must be collected will require more than the allotted 4 hours.
Which steps are required to ensure that all of the necessary data is collected using a single
collection
task?
A. Create two or more collection tasks against the same source.
B. Create a single collection task.
C. Create a single scheduled collection task. Set the schedule to start at 09:00 p.m., end at 01:00
a.m.,
and set the task to repeat.
D. Create a single scheduled collection task. Set a schedule to start at 21:00, end at 01:00, and set
the
task to repeat.
Answer: D

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NO.17 A Case Team is using Languages in Advanced Search to identify all documents that (1) contain
mostly
Spanish language (60 percent or more), and (2) contain some English language. The language
predominance threshold for this case was set to 60 percent. How should this search be formulated?
A. Select "Must Contain All of These" for Spanish and "Must Contain At Least One of These" for
English.
B. Select "Must Contain All of These" for both Spanish (predominant) and English.
C. Select "Must Contain All of These" for both Spanish and English.
D. Select "Must Contain All of These" for Spanish and English and "Must Not Contain Any of These"
for
English (predominant).
Answer: B

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NO.18 A new data source has been added to the Symantec Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x and
has
completed pre-processing without exceptions. No additional data has been added to the source
since the
completion of pre-processing. The Case Team needs all data in the source indexed for the case.
Which steps are required when processing the data source?
A. select the source and configure processing options using the property browser
B. select the source, apply the necessary date range filter, and process with or without discovery
C. select the source and configure the processing filters at the source level
D. select the source and process with or without discovery
Answer: D

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NO.19 A customer requests that all data for a specific custodian in a Symantec Enterprise Vault
mailbox
archive be collected and put on hold within Symantec Enterprise Vault. Since the matter is ongoing,
all
existing and new data must be collected and placed on hold.
Which two tasks should be performed to collect from and apply hold within Symantec Enterprise
Vault?
(Select two.)
A. create a scheduled collection task
B. create a scheduled hold task using the same search criteria as a collection task
C. create a scheduled hold task
D. create a collection task
E. create a hold task
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 Which metadata filters are available for collecting from Microsoft Exchange?
A. received date
B. sent date
C. modified date
D. creation date
Answer: B

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