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Exam Code: 000-544
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9.7 Advanced DBA for LUW)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 Given a newly created database and sufficient memory. If the following statements are successful:
CREATE BUFFERPOOL bp1 SIZE 40MB;
CREATE BUFFERPOOL bp2 PAGESIZE 16K SIZE 40000;
How much memory will be allocated for buffer pools BP1 and BP2?
A. 40MB
B. 80MB
C. 665MB
D. 680MB
Answer: C

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NO.2 if table space TBSP1 is using automatic storage, and the existing storage paths are full, which
command would increase the available storage?
A. ALTER DATABASE ADD STORAGE ON '/db2/filesystem1'
B. ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 ADD ('/db2/filesystem1')
C. ALTER DATABASE ADD STORAGE FOR tbsp1 ('/db2/filesystem1')
D. ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 EXTEND USING ('/db2/filesystem1')
Answer: A

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NO.3 Given the following table spaces, their associated page size, and number of pages:
TSP1 - 16K page size, 10000 pages
TSP2 - 8K page size, 10000 pages
TSP3 - 4K page size, 20000 pages
USERSPACE1 - 4K page size, 5000 pages
Which sets of buffer pools will ensure that all of the data in the table spaces will be fit into memory for
optimal data access?
A. IBMDEFAULTBP - 16K page size, 85000 pages
B. IBMDEFAULTBP - 4K page size, 25000 pages
BP1 -16K page size, 20000 pages
C. BP1 - page size 8K, 45000 pages
D. BP1 - 4K page size, 30000 pages
BP2 - 8K page size, 20000 pages
BP3 - 16K page size, 15000 pages
Answer: D

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NO.4 A table space has been created in the default database partition group.
What must you do to change the partition group for that table space?
A. Export the table space and reload it into the new partition group.
B. Move the table space to the new partition group as parameters.
C. Drop the table space and re-create it in the new partition group.
D. Alter the table space, specifying the new partition group.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have a database with eight partitions on a single server. Immediately after executing the following
command:
CREATE BUFFERPOOL mybp DEFERRED SIZE 3000
How much memory is consumed by buffer pool MYBP on the server?
A. 0 pages
B. 3000 pages
C. 24000 pages
D. 192000 pages
Answer: A

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NO.6 Considering you have an OLTP workload consisting of similar queries that are repeatedly generated
and differ only in their predicate values, what can be done to reduce compilation overhead?
A. UPDATE DB CFG USING STMT_CONC LITERALS
B. UPDATE DB CFG USING SQL_CONC LITERALS
C. UPDATE DB CFG USING SQL_CONC YES
D. UPDATE DB CFG USING STMT_CONC OFF
Answer: A

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NO.7 A table named TAB_A was created with the COMPRESS YES option specified and populated with
100,000 rows. If a DBA wants to create an index on table TAB_A, which statement is true?
A. In order for the index to be compressed, it must be enabled for compression by specifying the
COMPRESS YES option with the CREATE INDEX statement that is used to create it.
B. The index will automatically be compressed since the table it is associated with is compressed; the
ALTER INDEX command does not have to be executed.
C. In order for the index to be compressed, it must be enabled for compression by specifying the
COMPRESS YES option in the CREATE INDEX statement used to create it; however, the index will not
be compressed until the ALTER INDEX command is used to create an index compression dictionary.
D. The index will automatically be enabled for compression because the associated table is compressed;
however, the index will not be compressed until it is REORGed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Given the following statements:
CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE :\myfile1?1000, FILE
:\myfile2?800);
ALTER TABLESPACE mytbsp EXTEND (FILE :\myfile1?200, FILE :\myfile2?400);
How large are the containers MYFILE1 and MYFILE2?
A. MYFILE1 = 200 pages, MYFILE2 = 400 pages
B. MYFILE1 = 1200 pages, MYFILE2 = 1000 pages
C. MYFILE1 = 1400 pages, MYFILE2 = 1200 pages
D. MYFILE1 = 1200 pages, MYFILE2 = 1200 pages
Answer: D

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NO.9 A DBA needs to create a federated database and configure access to join data from three Oracle
instances and one DB2 database.
Which objects are needed to establish the specified connections?
A. 1 Oracle server , 1 DB2 server , 3 Oracle wrappers , and nicknames for each database
B. 1 Oracle server , 1 DB2 server , 1 Oracle wrapper , 1 DB2 wrapper , and nicknames for each database
C. 3 Oracle servers , 1 DB2 server , 3 Oracle wrappers , 1 DB2 wrapper , and nicknames for each
database
D. 3 Oracle servers , 1 DB2 server , 1 Oracle wrapper , 1 DB2 wrapper , and nicknames for each
database
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which action can be performed by the ALTER TABLESPACE statement?
A. Change an SMS table space to a DMS table space on any database partition.
B. Change the size of a container in an SMS table space.
C. Change the EXTENTSIZE setting for a table space on a database partition that currently has no
containers.
D. Add a container to an SMS table space on a database partition that currently has no containers.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Database DB1 is defined on partitions 1 through 4, with the system catalog defined on partition 2. This
database is configured with LOGRETAIN=YES and TRACKMOD=YES. On Sunday evening, a full online
database backup completes successfully on all partitions. On Monday afternoon, a new table space is
created in a database partition group defined on partitions 3 and 4. On Monday evening a backup is
executed as follows :
BACKUP DATABASE db1 ONLINE INCREMENTAL
What are the results of this operation?
A. The backup completes successfully on the catalog partion only.
B. The backup completes successfully on database partitions 1 and 2, but fails on database partitions 3
and 4.
C. The backup completes successfully on database partitions 3 and 4, but fails on database partitions 1
and 2.
D. The backup completes successfully on all database partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.12 How can you change an existing non-partitioned index for a partitioned table to a partitioned index?
A. Use the ALTER INDEX command.
B. Use the DROP INDEX and CREATE INDEX commands.
C. Use the REORG INDEX command.
D. Use the ALTER INDEX and REORG INDEX commands.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A database and a table space were created using the following commands:
CREATE DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE NO;
CONNECT TO mydb;
CREATE TABLESPACE tbsp1
MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/mnt/file1' 1 M, FILE '/mnt/file2' 1 M)
AUTORESIZE YES
INCREASESIZE 2 M
MAXSIZE 100 M;
$>?
Afterwards, two tables were created in table space TBSP1 and both tables were populated with 100,000
rows. If a DBA decides that database MYDB should use automatic storage, which command(s) are
needed to convert both the database and table space TBSP1?
A. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
B. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
C. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
D. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
Answer: B

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NO.14 A DBA wants to create table space named MYTBLSP in a database with five partitions.
Which command will create the table space on all five partitions?
A. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/tbsp/cont1P$NODES'
5000)
B. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/tbsp/cont1P0' to
'/tbsp/cont1P4' 5000)
C. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/tbsp/cont1P[0-4]' 5000)
D. CREATE TABLESPACE mytblsp MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/tbsp/cont1P $N' 5000)
Answer: D

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NO.15 A database named MYDB was created by executing the following command:
CREATE DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE NO
Later, a decision is made to modify this database so that both it and its table spaces use automatic
storage.
What steps are required to make this modification?
A. Use the ALTER DATABASE command to convert the database; all existing table spaces will be
converted automatically.
B. Use the ALTER DATABASE command to convert the database; use the ALTER TABLESPACE
command to convert all existing table spaces.
C. Use the ALTER DATABASE command to convert the database; use the ALTER TABLESPACE
command to convert all existing SMS table spaces.
D. Use the ALTER DATABASE command to convert the database; use the ALTER TABLESPACE
command to convert all existing DMS table spaces.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Table T1 was created by executing the following statement:
CREATE TABLE t1
(deptno CHAR(2) NOT NULL,
deptname VARCHAR(36) NOT NULL,
empno CHAR(3) NOT NULL)
Immediately after creation, table T1 was populated with 10 rows. Later, user USER1 ran an application
that inserted 100,000 rows into table T1.
The following query is frequently ran against the T1 table:
SELECT deptno, empno, deptname FROM t1 WHERE deptno = 'EN' AND empno = '123'
Assuming current statics exist for the table and index, which index will provide optimal performance for
this query?
A. CREATE INDEX idx1 ON t1 (deptno, empno) INCLUDE (deptname)
B. CREATE INDEX idx1 ON t1 (deptno, empno)
C. CREATE INDEX idx1 ON t1 (deptno) INCLUDE (empno)
D. CREATE INDEX idx1 ON t1 (deptno)
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is a method for enabling non-buffered I/O at the table space level in a DB2 database?
A. Set the DB2_DIRECT_IO configuration parameter to YES.
B. Set the DB2_FILESYSTEM_CACHE configuration parameter to YES.
C. Use the USE DIRECT IO clause with the CREATE TABLESPACE or ALTER TABLESPACE command.
D. Use the NO FILE SYSTEM CACHING clause with the CREATE TABLESPACE or ALTER
TABLESPACE command.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A database and a table space were created using the following commands:
CREATE DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE NO;
CONNECT TO mydb;
CREATE TABLESPACE tbsp1
MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE '/mnt/file1' 1 M, FILE '/mnt/file2' 1 M)
AUTORESIZE YES
INCREASESIZE 2 M
MAXSIZE 100 M;
Afterwards, two tables were created in table space TBSP1 and both tables were populated with 100,000
rows. If a DBA decides that database MYDB should use automatic storage, which command(s) are
needed to convert the database?
A. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
B. ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
C. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
D. ALTER DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE YES ON ?mnt/path_1? ?mnt/path_2?
ALTER TABLESPACE tbsp1 MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE;
Answer: A

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NO.19 Assuming the following commands are executed in the order shown:
CREATE DATABASE mydb AUTOMATIC STORAGE NO;
CONNECT TO mydb;
CREATE TABLESPACE tbsp1
MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE 'C:\file1' 1 M, FILE 'C:\file2' 1 M)
AUTORESIZE YES
INCREASESIZE 2 M
MAXSIZE 100 M;
CREATE TABLE tab_a (c1 INT, c2 CHAR(30), c3 XML) COMPRESS YES;
IMPORT FROM data.del OF DEL INSERT INTO tab_a;
If the following command is executed:
ALTER DATABASE mydb ADD STORAGE ON ?mnt/file_1? ?mnt/file_2?
Which statement is true?
A. The ALTER DATABASE command will fail because database MYDB was not created as an automatic
storage database.
B. The ALTER DATABASE command will convert database MYDB to an automatic storage database, and
table space TBSP1 will automatically be converted to an automatic storage table space.
C. Table space TBSP1 can be converted to an automatic storage table space at any time by executing the
ALTER TABLESPACE statement.
D. Table space TBSP1 will be placed in Conversion Pending?state and must be converted to an
automatic storage table space before it can be used.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which command produced the result shown below?
Tracking Memory on: 2010/02/18 at 21:18:19
Memory for database: SAMPLE
bph (2) utilh pckcacheh catcacheh bph (1) bph (S32K) bph (S16K)
4.2M 64.0K 256.0K 64.0K 288.0M 704.0K 448.0K
bph (S8K) bph (S4K) shsorth lockh dbh other
320.0K 256.0K 64.0K 10.0M 4.7M 128.0K
A. db2mtrk -i
B. db2mtrk -d
C. db2mtrk -p
D. db2mtrk -a
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-375
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Process Server V6.2, System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 107 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 A company is installing IBM WebSphere Process Server using the Launchpad and wants to create one
stand-alone IBM WebSphere Process Server and one stand-alone IBM WebSphere Application Server.
They want to minimize the steps required to create this environment. What background information does
the administrator need to know to accomplish these goals?
A. Only the IBM WebSphere Process Server stand-alone server can be created during installation.
B. Only the IBM WebSphere Application Server stand-alone server can be created during installation.
C. Either the IBM WebSphere Application Server stand-alone server or the IBM WebSphere Process
Server stand-alone server can be created during installation.
D. Both the IBM WebSphere Application Server stand-alone server and the IBM WebSphere Process
Server stand-alone server can be created during installation.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A business process event has failed. Assuming events are enabled, how may an administrator most
easily examine the end-to-end process flow that led to the failed event, working from the Failed Event
Manager?
A. From the failed event Details page, click rowse Related Common Base Events?
B. From the failed event Details page, click pen calling process in Business Process Choreographer
Explorer?
C. Select the failed event, click esubmit with Trace? and view component logs.
D. Enable tracing on the Failed Event Manager, and resubmit the original request.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A new business integration application retrieves and processes sensitive information from an Enterprise
Integration System (EIS). The connection is established using a WebSphere JCA adapter export
component. To protect the target component (wired) processing the data, the system administrator plans
to enable security on WebSphere Process Server. Which action should be performed to integrate the
adapter component in this environment?
A. No action is required because the JCA adapter does not support any inbound authentication
mechanisms.
B. No action is required. In a security enabled environment all EIS connections to back-end systems are
secured by default.
C. The run-as role should be set on the target component of the adapter export to protect downstream
component access.
D. The adapter export component should be configured to use a J2C authentication alias to access the
downstream components.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer is trying to change the settings for the Business Process Choreographer container
authentication alias (BPC_Auth_Alias) that was created during the profile creation step. An error message
indicating the developer does not have sufficient authority to change the settings is displayed. Which one
of the following is the minimum role a system administrator should grant to the developer to correct this
error?
A. Deployer role
B. Operator role
C. Configurator role
D. Administrator role
E. Adminsecuritymanager role
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company requires a business process that consists of multiple discrete steps which will run over a
period of several weeks. Some of these activities will be executed in parallel. Which type of business
process is this?
A. Microflow
B. Synchronous
C. Interruptible
D. Uninterruptible
Answer: C

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NO.6 The Service Integration Bus Browser is a tool available from the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) that
allows the system administrator to perform which tasks?
A. View runtime properties of messaging engines.
B. View runtime properties of messaging engines, and modify message contents.
C. View runtime properties of messaging engines, queue depths, and message contents.
D. View runtime properties of messaging engines, queue depths, and message contents, and perform
administration of queued messages.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A WebSphere Process Server module is performing poorly. What can a system administrator do to
improve the performance?
A. Turn off state observers that are not needed.
B. Configure module to use application security instead of Java2 security.
C. Optimize performance by installing a Derby database on each node in a cluster.
D. Ensure XA datasources are selected if Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) is used.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A system administrator is configuring a new Business Process Choreographer (BPC) container via the
Integrated Solutions Console (ISC). The database administrator has confirmed that the tables that the
container needs are already present in the database. On completion, the administrator installs the
BPCIVT application in order to verify the configuration. On starting the application, many failures are seen
in the server logs with the following output CWWBF0030E: Error during update of Business Process
Choreographer database with processes for application BPCIVT: CWWBA0010E:
com.ibm.db2.jcc.c.SqlException: "BPEBE00.SCHEMA_VERSION" is an undefined name What is the
cause of this problem?
A. The database name in the BPC configuration is incorrect
B. The User Id that the BPC database connection uses is incorrect
C. The Schema Name in the BPC configuration is incorrect
D. The scope that the BPC database has been configured at is incorrect
Answer: C

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NO.9 A company plans to use WebSphere Business Space widgets. The development team has
implemented custom widgets using the Representational State Transfer (REST) services of the Business
Process Choreographer API. Security is an important aspect and all communication channels and APIs
must be security enabled. Before the development team can test the installed widgets in a secured
environment, which action should be performed by the system administrator?
A. Change the communication protocol of all relevant REST service endpoints to use HTTPS.
B. No action needs to be taken because the REST service endpoints do not support HTTPS protocols for
API access.
C. Enable administrative security and disable application security on the server or cluster hosting the
REST service endpoints.
D. Remove all HTTP port mapping from the list of virtual hosts to automatically use HTTPS ports and
communication channels.
Answer: A

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NO.10 In a clustered IBM WebSphere Process Server environment, a company has created two application
deployment clusters using a single remote messaging engine cluster in the same cell. Client and server
applications are communicating via asynchronous Service Component Architecture (SCA) invocations.
Each application is deployed to a different cluster. Which task must the system administrator perform to
establish connectivity between the applications?
A. There is no need to change the configuration.
B. Configure a new messaging engine cluster.
C. Advise the development team to replace the SCA bindings with Web Service bindings.
D. Create a bus link between the SCA.SYSTEM and SCA.APPLICATION bus to establish connectivity.
Answer: A

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NO.11 When a system administrator creates an IBM WebSphere Process Server profile and selects Enable
administrative security, an administrator user name must be supplied. This identity is used as a default for
all underlying components. After the installation, which of the following components should be configured
to appropriate users from the user repository?
A. Human Task Manager
B. Business State Machine
C. Business Process Choreographer
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI)
E. Service component architecture (SCA)
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.12 Which component in the SOA core layer provides basic event management services to applications
which require them?
A. The event catalog application
B. The event management component
C. The Common Base Event (CBE) service
D. The Common Event Infrastructure (CEI)
Answer: D

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NO.13 A company has an IBM WebSphere Process Server clustered environment running. A system
administrator is asked to configure a LDAP people directory provider to be used by human tasks. Which
action should the system administrator take?
A. Configure the URL of the local LDAP server on all nodes within the cluster.
B. Configure the people directory provider on the cell that contains the cluster.
C. Configure the people directory provider on every node that hosts members of the cluster.
D. Configure a custom property listing on the nodes within the cluster; then configure the people directory
provider on the node associated with the custom property.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A WebSphere Process Server deployment environment is used by the development team. The
Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) was configured to be on its own Derby database. The functional and
recovery tests have passed the Proof of Concept (PoC). The next stage will be to conduct performance
tests on a staging environment. For consistency, the production environment will use the same topology
as the staging environment. Which action must the system administrator take to improve performance for
the staging system?
A. Configure CEI to use multiple Derby databases.
B. Configure a deployment environment referencing a high performance database instead of Derby.
C. Configure the CEI database to be on the same server as the WebSphere Process Server db
D. Configure the CEI database to be on the same server as the Messaging database to minimize network
latency.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A credit approval service implementation is frequently updated. Which WebSphere Process Server
component should be used to route the client application to the latest release?
A. A selector
B. A business rule
C. A mediation flow
D. An interface map
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which IBM product is an integral part of WebSphere Process Server?
A. WebSphere MQ.
B. WebSphere Business Modeler.
C. WebSphere Enterprise Service Bus (WESB).
D. WebSphere Service Registry and Repository (WSRR).
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which tool should the administrator use to apply the fix packs and updates to an IBM WebSphere
Process Server?
A. Profile Management Tool
B. IBM Support Assistant (ISA)
C. IBM Installation Manager
D. Update Installer for WebSphere Software
Answer: D

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NO.18 A system administrator wants to create a stand-alone profile and minimize the steps to complete the
task. The profile should be configured to use DB2 as the backend database and have the Business
Process Choreographer component configured. How should the administrator proceed to create the
stand-alone profile?
A. Use the advanced profile creation option.
B. Use the deployment environment creation option.
C. Use the createprofiles command to create the profile silently as additional configuration options can be
enabled in the responsefile.
D. After creating the stand-alone profile, augment the profile with the default.bpc template.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A system administrator wants to create a stand-alone profile and run Business Space on the
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What is the best method for the administrator to create the profile and enable Business Space support?
A. Business Space is not supported for a stand-alone profile.
B. Run the manageprofiles command using the -configureBSdb option.
C. Create the profile using the typical installation which installs and configures Business Space.
D. Create the profile using the Profile Management Tool and install and configure Business Space using
the Integrated Solutions Console.
Answer: D

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NO.20 An administrator is configuring an existing Business Process Choreographer (BPC) configuration to
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step should an administrator take to ensure that the tables that BPC requires will be present in the new
database?
A. Use the bpeConfig.jacl script to create the new database tables
B. In Business Process Choreographer configuration, ensure the Create Tables option has been
selected.
C. Use the sibDDLGenerator to generate new DDLs for the tables and run the new scripts on the new
database.
D. Export the tables from the previous database and import them into the new database.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-914
Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Lotus Quickr 8.5 for Domino)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 During installation, you specified a Lotus Quickr Administrator. In which of the following locations is the
administrator stored by default?
A. In the local Lotus Domino Directory
B. As a local member of the server's Site Administration place
C. qpsecurity.xml
D. In both the local Lotus Domino Directory and the Site Administration place
Answer: B

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NO.2 Using the report command, you can retrieve the following information from the Place Catalog about
places, EXCEPT?
A. Name and Title
B. Date last accessed and Date last modified
C. Members of the Place
D. Size of the Place
Answer: C

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NO.3 Louise has installed one Lotus Quickr server in her organization and she now wants to enable
cross-place searches. Which of the following tasks is NOT required when enabling Cross Places
Searches?
A. Set <search_places enabled="true" ....> in the qpconfig.xml
B. Enable SSO
C. Enable Domain Catalog in the Domino Server document that will be used as the Domain
catalog Server
D. Specify the Domain Catalog Server under <domain_catalog_server...> in the qpconfig.xml
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have created templates for places on your Lotus Quickr server. As an example, suppose you
create the place Sales and give it the look and feel you want to appear in places that members of the
Sales team create. You create a PlaceType from it called Sales PlaceType, and then you create the place
West Coast Sales from Sales PlaceType. Which of the following occurs if you change the design of Sales
and wish to distribute the design changes?
A. Refresh only Sales to distribute the changes
B. Refresh West Coast Sales to distribute the changes
C. Refresh SalesPlaceType and then West Coast Sales to distribute the changes
D. RefreshSales, refresh West Coast Sales, and then Sales PlaceType to distribute the changes
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Lotus Quickr environment you are viewing has a large number of places. Which of the following
options will decrease directory search times while in the Human Resources place on the Lotus Quickr
server?
A. Rebuild the LDAP cache in the place
B. Enable Narrow searches to the place name
C. Modify the LDAP port number to an alternate port
D. Enable check for SSL connection with LDAP user directory
Answer: B

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NO.6 What access level do members need to have to use My Places to perform place administration tasks?
A. Reader Access
B. Editor Access
C. Manager Access
D. Author Access
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which one of the following qpconfig.xml settings should be used in order to hide the Log In and Log Out
link from the Lotus Quickr homepage?
A. <authentication>
<sign_out enabled="false"/>
<sign_in enabled="false"/>
</authentication>
B. <authentication>
<sign_out hide="true"/>
<sign_in hide="true"/>
</authentication>
C. <security>
<sign_out enabled="false"/>
<sign_in enabled="false"/>
......
</security>
D. <security>
<sign_out disabled="true"/>
<sign_in disabled="true"/>
......
</security>
Answer: A

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NO.8 Barry, a QuickPlace Administrator, uses the QPtool remove command to remove a place. Which of the
following statements about removing places using the remove command is correct?
A. By default, the remove command removes places immediately
B. You must use the remove command on each user in the removed place also
C. You must configure theQPTool Remove field in the server document to determine when the place is
removed
D. If you use the remove command, you do not have to use the unregister command to remove the place
document
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the proper way to use the qptool register command to register a single place and have it create
a mail-in document in a single Quickr server?
A. loadqptool register -p PlaceName
B. loadqptool register -a PlaceName
C. loadqptool register -p PlaceName -install
D. loadqptool register -p PlaceName -mail-in
Answer: C

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NO.10 Oscar, the local administrator, has issued the following qptool command on his Lotus Quickr server:
load qptool placecatalog -reset Which of the following statistics are reset to zero (0) with this command?
A. LasyDayUses
B. DocReadCounts
C. NumberOfDocs
D. PlaceLastModified
Answer: B

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NO.11 You must have which of the following accesses to a place to create, edit, copy, delete, or run PlaceBots
manually?
A. Author
B. Editor
C. Designer
D. Manager
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following tasks is required when you have to change your LDAP connections to use SSL,
and Lotus Quickr is using Domino to control the Directory services?
A. Configure SSL in the Directory Assistance document
B. Configure SSL under <ldap> in the qpconfig.xml
C. Enable SSL in the Site Administration Page, under Directory services
D. Quickr does not support SSL connections to LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.13 While placing the necessary files onto the Lotus Sametime server for Lotus Quickr integration, you must
manually create which of the following folders for the files?
A. awareness
B. usernames
C. integration
D. peopleonline
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which one of the following commands should be used when upgrading a Quickr template?
A. loadqptool upgrade -pt PlaceType
B. loadqptool upgrade -p PlaceType
C. loadqptool upgrade -t template
D. loadqptool PlaceType upgrade -t
Answer: A

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NO.15 As a Quickr administrator, what would you do to find out the size of all places on the server?
A. Review the files sizes in the place directories indomino_data_root\LotusQuickr on the server
B. In the Notes client, open PlaceCatalog.nsf and open the Places and Rooms view
C. Run the command: loadqptool report -q [PlaceSize]>1000
D. From Places Administration, click on Statistics and then Download Statistics
Answer: D

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NO.16 When configuring Quickr to integrate with an ECM, which of the followings parameters must be set in
the qpconfig.xml?
A. <ecm_integration enabled="true">
B. <ecm enabled="true">
C. <quickr_ecm disable="false">
D. <quickr_integration ecm="true">
Answer: A

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NO.17 You would like to prevent a Place from receiving updates to the parent PlaceType. What should you do
to prevent the refresh?
A. Under Customize -Basics, clear the check mark next to Receive Updates
B. Change thePlaceType under Place Administration
C. Under Work with Templates, edit the PlaceType
D. Youcan not prevent a Place from refreshing from the parent PlaceType
Answer: A

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NO.18 Each of the following statements is true about the Place Catalog in Quickr 8.5, EXCEPT?
A. Each server, place, and room has a separate entry in the Place Catalog
B. The Place Catalog contains Policy documents
C. It enables place members to use My Places to see a list of places they belong to and statistics about
those places
D. The Place Catalog contains the statistics of each place
Answer: D

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NO.19 Several of the Places on your server have exceeded a predetermined size limit. How can you send a
broadcast email to the Place managers to ask them to reduce the size of their Places?
A. Using the Send Mail feature in Site Administration
B. Using the command: loadqptool mail -managers -template template.xsl -i mail.xml
C. Using the Send Mail feature in Place Administration
D. Using the command: loadqptool newsletter -a -managers -i mail.xml
Answer: C

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NO.20 After configuring Web page cache settings within Lotus Quickr, if a Web page is cached, subsequent
requests for the page are served from the cached copy by the server. How are these cached copies
stored?
A. Per place
B. Server wide
C. Per user name
D. Per group name
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-038
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Fundamental)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 What is one purpose of IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 adapters?
A. to send SMTP alerts
B. to provision VMware images
C. to send text files by FTP action
D. to provision and de-provision accounts
Answer: D

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NO.2 What configuration option is provided by the Middleware Configuration Utility?
A. create and configure the directory server
B. create and configure the application server
C. create and configure the HTTP Server plug-in
D. create and configure the directory integrator server
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two output formats generated by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 reports? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. DSML
E. Microsoft Word
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 Where does JavaScript defined with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) execute.?
A. browser
B. database
C. directory server
D. application server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which task can be done using the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) Self-Service User Interface
application?
A. manage service profiles
B. manage password changes
C. export text files through the FTP transport
D. send e-mail notifications to the ITIM administrator
Answer: B

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NO.6 JavaScript is used in which IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 task?
A. ACIs
B. Reports
C. Data Synchronization
D. Provisioning Policy Entitlements
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) service?
A. It represents a custom tool used to create an adapter using IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator.
B. It represents an instance of a resource such as an operating system or mail server that ITIM can
manage.
C. It represents an instance of a manage resource in order to provision identity policy to the federated
identity server.
D. It represents a user repository which a user can be provisioned and have access to modify XML; it also
represents SOAP 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which attribute is required for an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager custom person entity?
A. cn
B. uid
C. mail
D. eraliases
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which product can be configured with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager for auditing requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Security Operation Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Compliance Operation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
Answer: B

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NO.10 What can be achieved by IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business protecting IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager?
A. data sync
B. access control
C. roles management
D. federated identity management
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is available to define the User ID for account provisioning in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1
(ITIM)?
A. HR Feed
B. ITIM Adapter
C. Identity Policy
D. Adoption Policy
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which activity should be included during the requirements gathering phase for automating account
provisioning?
A. document reverse password synchronization
B. document challenge and response questions
C. document Self-Service Console requirements
D. document relationships between roles and accounts
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which operation is valid when a user's identity is suspended given properly configured automatic
provisioning policies and roles in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1?
A. The user's accounts are suspended on managed targets.
B. The user's identity is suspended and the accounts are deleted on the managed target.
C. The user's accounts will be modified in order to grant access rights to managed targets.
D. The user's accounts are added to the suspended group on the Enterprise Directory Server.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which policy type allows accounts and accesses to be validated periodically?
A. Identity
B. Adoption
C. Provisioning
D. Recertification
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is a function of an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. to log access activities on the managed resource
B. to provide reporting capability on a managed resource
C. to create and modify accounts on a managed resource
D. to create and modify password rules on a managed resource
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-536
Exam Name: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Security and Compliance Management Solutions V3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 A customer may have to comply to which security compliance regulation?
A. PCI
B. ITIL
C. CoBIT
D. Six Sigma
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which document should be in place as a partial indicator of IT compliance maturity?
A. Compliance Policy Registry
B. FFA Compliance ORM Document
C. Business Resilience Continuity Plan
D. Risk Management Mitigation Portfolio
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are three possible database products that applications could be using? (Choose three.)
A. Perl
B. RACF
C. Oracle
D. MSSQL
E. IBM DB2 F. ISS SiteProtector
Answer: CDE

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NO.4 A customer has a process which needs centralized keystore management. Which IBM solution should
be proposed?
A. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
B. IBM Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 Who has information about the different quality management processes in a customer's organi ation?
A. team leads
B. line managers
C. security officer
D. process consultants
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the most accurate statement about compliance?
A. MRO and SSO are primarily compliance tools.
B. Compliance has no interest in privileged user activity.
C. Compliance is concerned mostly with security profiles.
D. Compliance is concerned mostly with operator behaviors.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true about privileged user activity monitoring?
A. Privileged user activity monitoring is not necessary.
B. Privileged user activity is applicable to the overall compliance picture.
C. Privileged user activity monitoring is only necessary if sudo is implemented.
D. Privileged user activity monitoring is only necessary if sudo is not implemented.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the Business Process Modeling Notation (BPMN), what does this symbol represent?
A. Event
B. Action
C. Decision Point
D. IT-based Activity
Answer: C

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NO.9 The customer applies a strict password policy including: Password aging set to 60 days Password
complexity set to high Password recycling time set to never These restrictions apply both to user accounts,
system accounts, database accounts, and application accounts.Which level of detail are these policies
referenced in the IT Security Baseline document?
A. Every detailed setting.
B. Only those password policy details that affect the deployment of the IBM tools are referenced.
C. Password policies are not part of the IT Security Baseline document and therefore are not referenced.
D. The document references the existence of the password policy and then refers to the customer's
Password Policy Guideline document for more details.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two areas help assess the customer's level of maturity for IT process security and compliance
management
(Choose two.)
A. Risk Management
B. Incident Response
C. Project Management
D. Hardware Acquisition
E. Employee Certification
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: 000-723
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NO.1 An application developer has created a new Social Commerce adapter implementation for a new
service provider. Which of the following files must the application developer modify as part of configuring
the new adapter?
A. SocApp > config > ivy.xml
SocApp > config > adapter.config
B. SocApp > config > ivy.xml
SocApp > config > soccom_adapter.config
C. SocApp > config > soccom_instance.xml
SocApp > config > adapter.config
D. SocApp > config > soccom_config.xml
SocApp > config > soccom_adapter.config
Answer: A

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NO.2 An application developer wants to develop new commands and refers to the Information Center
documentation to understand how the commands and tasks are mapped to the table. Under which section
would this information be found?
A. Reference
B. Tutorials
C. Developing
D. IBM Education Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer places an order for two items that total $300. Item A costs $100 and is in stock. Item B
costs $200 and is not in stock but will be available in two days. The customer uses a credit card to pay for
the order. If this credit card payment method uses 'Early Approval' payment rule, which among the
following are TRUE?
A. $100 will be deposited at the time of shipment of Item A
B. $100 will be validated and deposited at the time of order capture
C. $100 will be validated and approved at the time of order capture
D. $300 will be validated at the time of order capture and deposited at the time of shipment of Item B
E. $300 will be reserved at the time of shipment of Item A and deposited at the time of shipment of Item B
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An application developer is enabling WebSphere Application Server Security with Federated LDAP
Repositories using the WebSphere Commerce Integration Wizard and WebSphere Commerce Developer.
Which file must be used for setting the user Security Role, if Application Security is enabled?
A. ibm-security-ext.xml
B. ibm-security-bnd.xml
C. ibm-application-bnd.xml
D. ibm-application-ext.xml
Answer: C

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NO.5 When using the 'No Validation or Reservation' payment rule, with 'finalize payment' event, what is the
target state of payment?
A. APPROVED
B. DEPOSITED
C. FINALIZED
D. DNE (Does Not Exist)
Answer: B

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NO.6 An application developer has customized the login functionality of the Madisons starter store and needs
to unit test the customization using the Storefront Test Automation Engine. If the unit test has to be
performed with two different data sets (e.g., user1 / password1, user2 / password2), how should the
application developer include the test data in the test case?
A. Include the test data in an XML data file.
B. Include both data sets in a single test automation script.
C. For each data set write a separate test automation script.
D. Invoke the test automation script from a command line and provide test data as command line
parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.7 If the requirements are as follows, which of the URLs must the application developer use? ?Check if
any of the parents of the specified organization are locked. ?Check if the specified organization is the
parent organization of the user. If it is not, then check whether the user assumes the Organization
Participant role in the specified organization or any of its ancestors. ?Reset all contract information such
that new contracts can be applied to reflect the change in the active organization.
A. BuyerUserRegistrationUpdate URL
B. ContractSetInSession URL
C. OrgEntityUpdate URL
D. OrganizationSetInSession URL
Answer: D

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NO.8 An application developer is creating different outbound queues for different message types while
integrating with WebSphere MQ. Which method of the SendMsgCmd command must be used to set the
queue destination in the custom code?
A. setMsgData
B. setConfigData
C. setContentData
D. setCommandData
Answer: B

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NO.9 In the Catalog Entry data model, which table represents a family of products with a common name and
description, used for fulfillment?
A. CATENTRY
B. CATENTTYPE
C. BASEITEM
D. ITEMFFMCTR
Answer: C

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NO.10 WebSphere Commerce implements Business Object Document (BOD) processing commands to
retrieve, process, modify, and synchronize data. Identify the correct verb/response mapping in the BOD.
A. Get and Respond.
B. Process and Show.
C. Sync and ConfirmBOD.
D. Change and Acknowledge.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When running a JUnit test case for a Business Object Document (BOD) in WebSphere Commerce
Developer, which feature of Rational Application Developer will allow the application developer to view the
request and response documents.?
A. Console
B. Code Coverage
C. TCP/IP Monitor
D. Software Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.12 An application developer needs to define the store level action mapping to specify a target JSP file
which will format Atom feeds for WebSphere Commerce Web services. Where:
ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType is the name of the SDO for the noun.
SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp is the feed formatting JSP file. What should be the action
mapping in the struts-extension.xml file?
A. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/0"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
B. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/<store_Id>"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
C. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/0"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
D. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/<store_Id>"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
Answer: B

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NO.13 An application developer has to change the style of Social Commerce widgets. What action does the
application developer have to take?
A. Modify soccomie.css and soccom.css
B. Modify the widget definition in REST API.
C. Modify REST API, soccom.css and soccomie.css
D. Modify soccomie_style.css and soccom_style.css
Answer: A

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NO.14 In what format are test cases written to test Management Center using the test automation framework?
A. XML file
B. ANT script
C. JUnit class
D. OpenLaszlo class
Answer: A

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NO.15 After running the data load utility, the application developer notices an error similar to the following: An
error occurred while attempting to populate the table ITEMSPC because the mandatory parameter
ParentProductIdentifier was missing. The ID was not resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the unique
index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1, 7000000000000000054]. Stack trace:
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.exception.DataLoadApplicationException: The ID was not
resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the unique index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1, 7000000000000000054].
at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverForOneTable.resolveId(IDResolverForOne
Table.java:336) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverImpl.resolveId(IDResolverImpl.java:266) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.resolv
eIds( AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1164) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.resolv
eId(A bstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1118) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.AbstractInventoryMediator.resolveItemSPCId(AbstractIn
vent oryMediator.java:656) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.populateRECEIPT(Inventory
Receipt Mediator.java:251) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.transform(InventoryReceiptM
ediat or.java:120) <...> Note: The information in bold represents variable information:
7000000000000000054.is the member_id, and DL_PROD1_SKU1 is the partnumber. What is the cause
of the error?
A. The item id is incorrect or missing.
B. The unique index constraint is violated.
C. The inventory value for the product is missing.
D. The inventory system being used is set to ATP while loading non-ATP data.
Answer: D

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NO.16 After migrating the store assets project, the application developer notices an exception similar to the
following example. [12/22/09 13:13:11:859 PST] 00000012 WASSessionCor I SessionContextRegistry
getSessionContext SESN0176I: Will create a new session context for application key
WC_default_host/webapp/wcs/stores [12/22/09 13:13:13:953 PST] 00000012 ValidatorPlug I
org.apache.struts.validator.ValidatorPlugIn initResources Loading validation rules file from
'/WEB-INF/validator-rules.xml' [12/22/09 13:13:35:265 PST] 00000012 TilesPlugin E
org.apache.struts.tiles.TilesPlugin initDefinitionsFactory Can't create Tiles definition factory for module ''.
[12/22/09 13:13:35:265 PST] 00000012 ActionServlet E org.apache.struts.action.ActionServlet init
Unable to initialize Struts ActionServlet due to an unexpected exception or error thrown, so marking the
servlet as unavailable. Most likely, this is due to an incorrect or missing library dependency.
javax.servlet.ServletException: org.apache.struts.tiles.DefinitionsFactoryException: IO Error while parsing
file '/WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml'. Connection timed out: Before attempting to restart the server, the
application developer needs to:
A. change the library dependency in the WEB-INF/struts-config.xml file.
B. change the Connection Time Out value in WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml file.
C. modify the validation rules in /WEB-INF/validator-rules.xml file.
D. modify the DTD version in the <!DOCTYPE> element of WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml file.
Answer: D

IBM   000-723   000-723

NO.17 An application developer needs to ensure that multiple portlets on a page and across pages can
communicate as one client with the WebSphere Commerce Server. Where in the portlet session should
the authentication callback handler object and business context object be stored?
A. contextId
B. contextKey
C. contextData
D. contextService
Answer: B

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NO.18 An application developer needs to encrypt sensitive pieces of information while integrating the Social
Commerce sMash application with BazaarVoice. Which value in the adapter.config must be encrypted?
A. adminPassword
B. adminSecret
C. restAdminPassword
D. sharedKey
Answer: D

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NO.19 The business logic layer in WebSphere Commerce runtime is implemented using the command
pattern where application logic is specified independently from the presentation layer. Which statement
about the implemented commands for the business logic layer is correct?
A. Entity beans act as an interface between the business components and the database.
B. Task commands are used to implement application logic and should not be accessed by the
presentation layer.
C. View commands are invoked by the task commands and are used to compose a view as a response to
a client request.
D. Data bean commands are invoked by the data bean manager and are used to populate fields of a data
bean with data from a persistent object.
Answer: B

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NO.20 An application developer notices that a policy that is expected to grant access appears in the trace,
however it is not being applied. In addition an error similar to the following example is logged to the
trace.log file. PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed isAllowed? User=510; Action=Execute;
Protectable=com.ibm.commerce.catalog.commands.ProductDisplayCmdImpl; Owner=2002; Resource
Ancestor Orgs=2002,-2001; Resource Applicable Orgs=2002 PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed Found
PolicyName:AllUsersExecuteResellerUserCmdResourceGroup; PolicyType: 3; PolicyOwner: -2001
PolicyManagerImpl.getPolicyApplicableOrgs No organizations subscribe to a policy group with this policy
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed Policy does not apply to the resource's applicable organizations ...
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed PASSED? =false Apart from ensuring that the resource owner is
subscribing to the correct policy groups and subscribing the organization to the policy group, what are the
correct values to insert into the ACPLGPSUBS table?
A. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup) and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
B. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup) and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
C. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
D. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
Answer: A

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NO.1 What does the MADUNLLOAD job do?
A. It loads the records into the report extractor
B. It formats the Dun & Bradstreet data to be loaded into the relationships table
C. It performs simple data cleansing, like removing blanks and zeros
D. It loads UNL files into the database for Member, Entity, Audit, and Relationship data
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a contributor of member records to the Hub.?
A. Attribute Segment
B. Definitional Source
C. Informational Source
D. Consuming Source
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the view of a member or entity in Inspector called?
A. Enterprise View
B. Composite View
C. Consolidated View
D. Most Current View
Answer: B

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