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Exam Code: 6207.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura® Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A technician is installing Avaya Aura Viewer on a large customer site with 500 recording channels. The
customer has an existing SQL database that they want to use. What would be the correct option for this?
A. Put the database and Viewer on the same server.
B. Put the Viewer on a separate server.
C. Put the Avaya Contact Recording Master (with no IP recording), the TDM Recorder, the database and
the Viewer on the same server.
D. Put the database, the Viewer, and the Avaya Aura Archive on the same server.
Answer: B

Avaya test questions   6207.1 certification   6207.1   6207.1 exam prep

NO.2 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the Software. What needs to be configured at level1?
A. Switches
B. Data Connections
C. Servers
D. Sites
Answer: D

Avaya   6207.1   6207.1

NO.3 A technicianhas finished installing an Avaya Aura Archive system thathas been addedto an
existingsolution, consisting of three Avaya Aura Contact Recording(Avaya CR) servers and one Avaya
AuraViewer system. Before startingthe Archive, what can be done toensure that calls canbe archived?
A. fromAuraarchive server, ping each of the Avaya CR servers by means of the name configured inthe
"Machine Name"fieldinthe"Capture Platform Information" windowinside theViewerapplication.
B. FromArchiveserver, ping each Avaya CR servers by means oftheirIp-addresses.
C. Check thatthe EWareCalls databasewas createdduring archive installation.
D. Verify from the"Recorder Status/Server" window on the AvayaCR thatthe "Linkto Viewer" field
isshowing "UP".
Answer: A

Avaya   6207.1 exam prep   6207.1

NO.4 It is stronglyrecommendedto install theRedHatoperatingsystem (OS) from the kickstartfile(ks.cfg).
Which three components are necessary to create a ks.cfg file using the kickstarttool? (Choose three)
A. The IP addresses of the network interfaces
B. The name of extraRedHat Package manager (RPM) packages tobe installed
C. TheMAC address of the NetworkInterface Card(NIC) Eth0
D. The IP address of the Network Timeprotocol (NTP)server
E. The/var partition size
Answer: ADE

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NO.5 A technician has configured one Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system to be used only 1
Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM). Everything has been configured under the "Operation/Quality
Monitoring" tab in the Avaya CR administration window, and the "link to Quality" shows UP on the
"Recorder Status/Server" window. After a few calls are made, it is discovered that no calls are being
recorded correctly.
What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
A. The field "Can he Service Observed" is set to "N" for the Class of Restriction (COR) assigned the
recorder ports. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension
b-ordered.
B. The field "Can be Service Observed" is set to "N" for the COR for the agent logged in on the extension
being recorded.
C. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the recorder ports.
D. The field "Can be Service Observed" Is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension being
recorded.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 You have just installed one Avaya Aura viewer system and have made some test calls that appear to
have been recorded successfully by the Avaya Aura Contact Recoding (Avaya CR) system. While being
recorded, one of the test calls was put on and then taken of hold. When you run a query using Avaya CR
"Search and replay" you expect to __________ and when you run a query from Viewer, in the Viewer
query Results Windows you expect to _______ for the same call.
A. see two segments which can be connected by means of Universal Call ID (UCID) and you will have to
listen to two audio files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole
conversation
B. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see two segments and you will hear two audio files playing
C. see one segment and you will hear one audio file that stops playing right after the call has b-put on hold;
see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole conversation
D. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file stopping right after the call has been put
on hold
Answer: A

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NO.7 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being deployed as a single
server solution. As part of the configuration the Voice Cards must be specified.
Which kind of voice card should be created?
A. Dialogic D/240JCT
B. Dialogic D/82JCT
C. VR1000
D. Dialogic DSE DL-300x
Answer: B

Avaya   6207.1   6207.1

NO.8 A technician has installed a now Avaya Aura Viewer server and configured It to store data coming from
five different Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) systems. The technician has created just a query
for testing functionality and is able to retrieve calls and play them. The customer was called for
information but they notice that there are no calls associated to one of the Avaya CRs (name ver2).
What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The query has not been released to Server2.
B. Server2 is a standby recorder for one of the other Avaya CRs, so it did not record any calls ' time
intervals the query was fun.
C. Server2 was not included as a "Capture Platform" into the Viewer Administration page.
D. Grant rights were not granted to the customer for Server2.
E. Server2 was not included as a "Location" in the Viewer Administration page.
Answer: AC

Avaya certification training   6207.1   6207.1   6207.1   6207.1 test questions

NO.9 While waiting to activate an Avaya Aura Contact recording (Avaya CR) license, some tests are run with
the five-day license. Once the full license is obtained, what is the path to update the Avaya CR to the full
license?
A. System > License > Change License
B. System > Manage Users > Change License
C. General Setup > Recorder > License
D. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
Answer: A

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NO.10 A technician has just installed an Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system that uses Station Bulk
Recording, the customer has provided the list of extensions, login IDs and skills that need to be recorded,
and the technician wants to try one first to validate the configuration.
Which statement describes how to verify that the system is configured correctly.?
A. Add one of the agent login IDs in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk|
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one the recorder ports has been assigned to the
extension where the agent is logged in, and that the state shows "Connected".
B. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder"under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Connected".
C. No extensions in the system need to be configured as they will automatically be picked up by the
system, once the field "Filter Calls by VDN and/or Skill Hunt Group" under Operation/ Station Bulk
Recording" has been populated with the skills provided.
D. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Idle".
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3102.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been asked to
apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new Application
Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating Application Sequence
drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the Berlin
location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

Avaya   3102.1   3102.1

NO.2 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. undefined
Answer: A,C,D

Avaya   3102.1 demo   3102.1   3102.1 exam simulations

NO.3 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

Avaya   3102.1   3102.1 exam simulations

NO.4 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

Avaya study guide   3102.1   3102.1

NO.5 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session Manager
but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password is valid
In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again in
Session Manager.
Answer: D

Avaya   3102.1 exam dumps   3102.1 answers real questions

NO.6 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

Avaya   3102.1   3102.1   3102.1   3102.1 exam simulations

NO.7 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data, using
which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

Avaya original questions   3102.1 pdf   3102.1   3102.1

NO.8 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.9 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a user name
and password.
Which statement best explains why a user name and password are required.?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption process and
subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are used to
login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and authentication
purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation. For
system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

Avaya certification training   3102.1 exam   3102.1

NO.10 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main site and
Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

Avaya   3102.1 original questions   3102.1   3102.1

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Exam Code: 3301
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Centre Maintenance & Troubleshooting Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 54 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 In the Avaya Aura Contract Center (AACC) SIP environment, when a call is presented to an agent ¯ s
telephone, the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD) also alerts the agent to the incoming call. The call may
be answered either via the telephone or AAAD.
If the agent uses the AAAD to answer the call, which protocol is used between AACC and the switch to
signal off-hook?
A. CCT
B. SIP RTP
C. TAPI
D. TR87
Answer: A

Avaya   3301 certification training   3301

NO.2 The C:\WINDOWS\system32\drivers\etc\hosts file on the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
contains multiple entries for each host. You have removed the duplicate entries by manually editing the
file.
What should you do next to completely resolve the issue?
A. Run the Server Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS server.
B. Reboot the CCMS server.
C. Use the windows services utility to restart the MAS Configuration manager services.
D. Run the CCMS network Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS
server.
Answer: B

Avaya   3301   3301   3301 original questions

NO.3 Which SIP component supports both H.323 and SIP protocol architecture, and which common media
streaming protocol is supported?
A. SIP Gateway Manager with transport Layer Security (TLS)
B. Network Routing Service with TCP and UDP
C. Back to Back User Agent (B2BUA) with TLS
D. SIP Gateway with Real-Time Protocol (RTP)
E. SIP Redirect Server with RTP
Answer: C

Avaya   3301   3301 exam dumps

NO.4 While Investigating an Issue with an Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) Contact Center Manager
(CCMS), you discover that the Task Flow Executor (TFE) frequently restarts. In an effort to discover the
cause of the restarts, you decide to review the TFE log file.
Which file contains the most recent TFE logs.?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\TFE 1.log
B. D:\Avaya\l_ogs\CCMS_TFF 1.log
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS_TFE_5.log
D. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_TFE_1.log
Answer: C

Avaya   3301   3301   3301   3301

NO.5 In Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC), how do you create auto responses that address the most
commonly received e-mail queries?
A. Run ,1 "Contacts is Closed by Auto Suggestion, top 5" historical report from the "Multimedia" folder in
Historical Reporting on the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) server, and auto suggestion
keywords and responses from the report to create new e-mail auto-respect.
B. Enable "Keyword Reporting" for e-mail contactsinthe "E mail" tool in Contact Center Multimedia
(CCMM) Administration, then use the "Keyword Frequency" tool to determine which keywords would be
used to trigger new auto-responses.
C. Run a "Contact Summary" report in Historical Reporting on the CCMA server and create
auto-responses based on the most frequently-occurring e-mail contact topics in the report.
D. Use the "Auto-Suggest Promotion" tool in CCMM Administration to promote auto-suggestions
auto-responses based on the percentage of contacts for which each auto-suggestion was selected.
Answer: B

Avaya   3301   3301   3301 study guide

NO.6 Where are current SIP messages logged by Contact Center Manager Server?
A. C:\Avaya\logs\CCMS\SipMessages0
B. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessages0
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_SGM_SipMessages0
D. F:\Traces\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessagesO
Answer: D

Avaya   3301 pdf   3301   3301

NO.7 Avaya Aura Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) is host to the Contact Center Security framework
certificate Store. In the procedures to Create a Certificate Store, once the store is created is also created.
A characteristic of this certificate is that it contains__________.
A. a private key that is used in private - public key encryption
B. a public key that is used in public - public key encryption
C. a private key that is used in private - private key encryption
D. a public key that is used in private - private key encryption
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your department has installed a backup utility client application on your co-resident Contact Center
Manager Server (CCMS) server. This utility uses port 10000 for network communications. After installing
the utility and rebooting the server, you begin to have issued with the Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC)
system.
What are the symptoms of this problem that you experience?
A. The TFE service fails to start and calls are not processed.
B. The Toolkit Name service fails to start and agents appear as "UNKNOWN" in real-time displays.
C. The NCCT service fails to start and agents are unable to log in via the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop)
(AAAD).
D. SymposiumWC.exe fails to start and supervisors are unable to log in to Contact Center Manager
Administrator (CCMA).
Answer: B

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NO.9 An agent is configured to handle e-mail multimedia contacts. The agent is able to receive, read, and
reply to e-mails using the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD). However, the agent cannot open
attachments in inbound e-mails.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The agent ¯ s w eb b r o w se r i s no t se t f o r t he co rr ec t cha r ac t e r encod i ng .
B. .NET 3.5 Service Pack 1 is not installed on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
C. Internet Explorer is not set as the default browser on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
D. The agent has not been granted ° open -mail Attachments ± ri gh t s i n C on tr ac t C en t e r m u lti m ed i a
(CCMM).
Answer: A

Avaya questions   3301   3301   3301 test   3301

NO.10 At an elevated level, engineers have designed the architecture ol SH' around ttv<> varlel les of
component s.
Which SIP component is comprised of two subcomponents, where one component initiates SIP the other
component responds to requests?
A. User Agent
B. SIP Gateway Manager
C. Back to-Back User Ag
D. SIP Server
E. SIP Gateway
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6001-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Session Manager and System Manager)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 What are two outcomes of running SMnetSetup on a server that has an existing
installation of Session
Manager? (Choose two)
A. The network and date/time is configured on the server
B. A system administrator login will be created
C. The same version of the Session Manager software currently installed is re-installed
D. The current version of the Session Manager software is upgraded
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 Which URL should be used to access the web console to deploy System Manager?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/Webconsole
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements describe how adaptations affect the routing of a request?
(Choose two)
A. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered incoming
adaptation
B. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
C. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered incoming
adaptation
D. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
Answer: A, D

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NO.4 Session Manager has a routing policy that routes calls made to any number beginning
with 100
to SIP
Entity X. However, sip: 1001@avaya com
is the SP communication profile address of user Y, User Y is
not currently registered (signed in )with Session Manager What will happen if Session
Manager receives
a call addressed to sip 1001@avaya com
and exactly why?
A. It depends on the time ranges of the policy If the call is placed inside a defined tine range
for the policy,
the call will be routed to destination X If not, then Session Manager will attempt to route the
call to user Y.
Since Y is not registered, the call will timeout, and the call will fail
B. Since user Y is not currently registered, the call will be handled by the routing policy. If the
call is placed
during a time rage specified by the call policy, then the call will be routed to destination X. If
not, then the
call will fail
C. Since the destination URI matches a communication profile SIP handle, Session Manager
will not use
the routing policy in handing the call The call will fail since user Y is not currently registered
D. Since the destination URI matches a routing policy dial pattern, Session Manager will give
no
consideration to the user Y registration status, xx the call is made during a time rage for the
policy, the
policy will be applied and the will be routed to be destination X. If not, then the orignal URL of
sip
1001@avaya com will be used as the destination to which Session Manager will route the
call
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which definition describes a Session Manager community?
A. A community represents a group of users in a single location or group of locations. A
community helps
define maximum numbers of users in each location for purposes of bandwidth management,
quality of
service, and Call Admissions Control
B. A community is a group of peer Session Manager instances in an enterprise organization.
Each
Session Manager in the community automatically shares configuration and policy data,
meaning that
administrators settings and policies only once and that all Session Managers will process
requests in the
same way
C. A community represents all SIP Entities known to a Session Manager it is through the
community that
data from SIP Entities can be collected and merged, ready tor easy analysis
D. A community is a sub-divided group of users in which half of the group make use of one
Session
Manager as their Primary while the other half make use of a different Session Manager as
their Primary
Each half also makes use of the other Session Manager as their Secondary for purposes of
redundancy
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the benefit of using the Communication Profile Editor to modify users?
A. It allows an administrator to change all the values of the Communication Profile settings
for multiple
SIP System Manager users at one time
B. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager user at one tine
C. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple SIP users
at one time
D. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple users at
one time
E. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager users at one time
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which component of the Communication Profile can be changed by modifying a user
via
Communication Profile Edition?
A. Communication Address
B. Session Manager Profile
C. Endpoint Profile
D. Messaging Profile
Answer: B

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NO.8 When you upgrade Session Manager and you had been using the hardware SM-100,
the network
connection of the SM-100 must be moved to which port on the Session Manager server?
A. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 2
B. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 3
C. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 1
D. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 0
Answer: B

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NO.9 An IMS type feature server has been installed by another administrator beam. They
have also
configured Session Manager to route all incoming calls for user John Smith to be routed to
the new
feature server, It appears from traces and capturing network traffic that Session Manager
does indeed
route john Smith s incoming calls to the feature server, but that the feature server does not
appear to take
any action besides returning the request bock to Session Manager Which field has been
NCORRECTLY
configured?
A. Application Handle
B. Entity Link port
C. Orignating Application Sequence
D. Terminating Application Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.10 How is Call Admission Control enabled?
A. Call Admission Control is enabled in the SIP Entity by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per fall
and Managed Bandwidth
B. Call Admission Control is enabled on the Session Manager instance by specifying a value
for Average
bandwidth per can and Managed Bandwidth
C. Call Admission Control is enabled on a Location by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth
D. Call Admission Control is enabled on an Entity Link specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth on the Location screen in Session Manager
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6201-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center on Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Which two CommunicationManagerfeatures does the VALcircuit pack support? (Choose two.)
A. Music-an-hold
B. Voice over IP
C. Integrated Announcements
D. Local Announcements
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A customer has purchased 5200 agent licenses and each agent has been assigned at least 3 skills.
Which two values would be a valid Data Storage Allocation entry for "Maximumagents lagged in"?
(Choose two)
A. 10400
B. 15600
C. 100000
D. 500000
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 The Quick Credit call center opened at 8 a.m. on the Friday, the day after a holiday By8:30, the
customer service line had received 6 customercomplaints all1 stemming from calls to the center the day
before. Callers complained thatthey received the all agents are busy
recording but regardlesshow long
they waited, were never answered.
What caused callers to be queued even though the Quick Credit call center was closed onthe holiday?
A. The Communication Manager was down.
B. An agentforgotto log out.
C. The holiday recording was not functioning properly.
D. The holiday was not administered in the holiday tablet
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click theexhibit button
A Miami basedmedical center is defining evacuation procedures for severe weather conditions The center
has decided to plan for two types evacuations, major and minor During a minor evacuation; the center
willstaff only a few medical answer line agents to answer critical callsmajor evacuation the answer line will
not be staffed instead of reaching alive agent, callers willreceive a pre-recordedinformation
Inthe example vector segment, what is represented by the Ein steps 2 and 3?
A. E is a standard vector code for evacuation
B. E has been administered as a Feature Access Code
C. Ehas a vector variable that is changed when an evacuation is required
D. E is assigned to a VDN that routes calls to an evacuation vector
Answer: D

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NO.5 Toactivate, which three options require an Avaya authorization password? (Choose three)
A. simultaneous CMS Supervisor logins
B. the number of agents thatthe CMS can report on
C. the number of users that can be administered in the CMS
D. the number of ACDs thatthe CMS system can monitor
E. features assigned to each user
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 A technician integratesthecustomer snetwork and links the CM reference between CM and CMS is
greater than 24 hours.
Whatcan be done to fix the problem?
A. Shutdown the CMS to the ak prompt level and adjust the BIOS time.
B. Run the script /cms/install/autotime to synchronize the Communication Manager's time to the CMS
C. In. CMS, login as root and use the /cms/datesync command to sync the CMS and CM time.
D. FromSolarislogin as root and use the date command
Answer: B

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NO.7 In an active non-Expert agent selection (AES) environment, what is each hunt group known as?
A. Agent
B. Split
C. Skill
D. Vector
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer needs helpwith maintaining service leveltargets.
Which Advocate feature will make automated adjustments to overload settings?`
A. Dynamic Threshold Adjustment
B. Service Objective
C. Dynamic Percent Allocation
D. Vector Queuing Priorities
Answer: A

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NO.9 When connecting the service PC to S8800, the cable connects the System Management Ethernet
connector port.
Which port is used when hooking the monitor to the CMS T5220?
A. SER MGT Port
B. NET MGT Port
C. NET 1Port
D. XVR-300XB port
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer just upgraded their CMS to releaseR16 from release Rt4. Theswitch is releaseCM4 and is
not going to be upgraded to CM 6untilnextweek
When the switch is upgraded,what needs to happen before the link will come up using theCM6 protocol?
A. Only the reporting adjunct in the switch needs to be changed to R16 CMS.
B. Only the switch release in the CMS needs to be changed to CM6.
C. Both the reporting adjunctthe switch and the switch release in the CMS need to be updated
D. It is not necessary fareither the reporting adjunct orthe switch release to change.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 7004-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s DI D r ange t o t he Att endant.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s di ali ng pl an shown i n t he exhi bit and an exa mpl e f or it s r equi r e ment s:
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s pr ogr a mmed dat abase shown i n t he exhi bit and AC 1 = 9, over whi ch RLI will a call
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.10 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 3104
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya one-X® UC Soft Clients Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 The Avaya one-X® Client Enablement Services (CES) has the choice of template sizes.
Which factor is used to decide the template size?
A. Extra feature purchased by the customer
B. The version of System Platform
C. The server type
D. The type of mobile devise that is being integrated into Avaya one-X® CES
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Avaya product performs the SIP network routing for Avaya one-X® CES?
A. Session Manager
B. Application Enablement Services
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: A

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5. When setting up the Presence Server in Avaya one-X® CES, you see that the Management
Service must be established.
Which IP address is used for the host Management Service?
A. Session Manager
B. Communication Manager
C. System Manager
D. System Platform
Answer: C

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6. To prepare for the installation of the Avaya one-X® CES solution template, a new administrator
account was added to the admin security group in the enterprise Directory. When trying to login to
the Avaya one-X® CES server, you receive the error message The User name or password you
provided not recognized.
Which troubleshooting action should you take do to resolve problem?
A. Login to the Enterprise Directory and verify the user name.
B. Login as admin and change the user name in the Avaya one-X® CES server.
C. Login to the System Manager/User management/Users and synchronize the System manager
with the Avaya one-X® CES server.
D. Login to the System Platform and edit the user name.
Answer: C

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7. You are in the process of investigating an error in the General Logging log. You first look at the
systemOut.log and you see that the protocol Aspect is enabled.
What is the other General log file you need to check to determine what the problem is?
A. SNMP log file
B. SAL log file
C. Trace.log file
D. Avaya one-X® CES log file
Answer: C

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8. While setting up the interface to Avaya Aura® Conferencing, one of the values is the BCAPI
host.
Which IP address is the BCAPI host?
A. Avaya Web Conferencing
B. Bridge
C. Web Portal
D. Conference Manager
Answer: A

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9. After the completion of Avaya one-X® CES solution template, you find that the transcoding
service
is unable to connect to the Transcoding Server in the Avaya one-X® CES system, you see that
the state is unavailable.
Which troubleshooting steps are needed to resolve problem?
A. Verify that the property values in the Transcoding server is Same as what is stated in the
System Manager server.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the transcoding server
Verify the Host IP address
Restart the Avaya one-X® CES server
B. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding directory is Present on the handset Server
Verify the Host IP address is the same as the loopback IP address
Restart the transcoding Server.
C. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding Server is the same as what is stated on the Avaya one-X CES
admin web site.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the Avaya one-X CES server.
Verify the host IP address is same as the loopback IP address.
D. Update the Avaya one-X CES Transcoding Services value via the Admin page.
Verify that the Host IP address and the loopback IP address are not same.
Restart the Transcoding server.
Answer: A

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10. You have a case where the calls to the user gets routed to Avaya one-X® Mobile and
voicemail at
the same time. You have verified that the user’s desktop telephone is set to Send all calls,
however, the Avaya one-X® Mobile device is disabled and the calls are registering as a call entry.
Which statement correctly describes the solution to this problem?
A. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all Calls on the mobile device when the Avaya
Deskphone is set to Block All Calls.
B. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Block All Calls.
C. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
D. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two servers are optional with regard to the Restart the CES solution? (Choose two)
A. Session Manager
B. LDAP
C. Communication Manager
D. Presence
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 While at a customer site, an out-of-memory space permanent generation (PermGen) error
occurs.
Which troubleshooting steps you perform so that error does not occur again?
A. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into Communication Manager as admin)
Type: /sbin/service/ reboot.
Installthe template
B. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into the Avaya one-X® CES server as admin)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Install all template
C. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into System Manager as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat reboot
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
D. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into cdom as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
Answer: D

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NO.1 Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined
period of the day?
A. Routing Profile
B. Domain Polity Administration
C. Topology Hiding Profile
D. Signaling Interface
Answer: B

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NO.2 How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP
trunking
on an SBC located in the DMZ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which pair of elements are configured in a Server Profile?
A. The IP address, the transport protocols
B. The QoS and auto-negotiation settings
C. The Time of Day rules and server FQDN
D. The default gateway and NTP IP addresses
Answer: A

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NO.4 When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the
relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”)?
A. The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) software.
B. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) are identical, regardless of hardware
platform.
D. The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”).
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker
cluster?
A. System Platform
B. Session Manager
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 If the Remote Worker cluster is using a Real Server IP and Real Server Port, over which
protocols
are these registration requests routed?
A. HTTP/HTTPS
B. LDAP/PPM
C. FTP/SFTP
D. RTP/SFTP
Answer: A

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NO.7 What do Media Interfaces define?
A. The IP addresses and ports for media
B. The IP addresses and URIs
C. The RTP and TCP ports for media
D. The TLS and RTP ports for media
Answer: A

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NO.8 The site survey gathers what kind of information?
A. Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B. Network bandwidth test results
C. Customer readiness data
D. Server models
Answer: C

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NO.1 A customer has opened up a new location in London that will have four employees. They want to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed for over a
year without any software revisions. The employees in London will use the New York City location for all
outbound and inbound calls and want to be able to dial any extension at either location.
What should you recommend for this customer?
A. Install an IP500 with four digital phones in London and use short codes to dial across the H.323 IP
trunk to connect back to New York City.
B. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and create a VPN connection between London and New
York City with firewalls at both locations using double network address translations.
C. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to connect back to
New York City to dial out of New York City.
D. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in New York City and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to connect
back to London to dial out of London.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which supported hardware is needed to protect an analog extension port that is in a different building
than the control unit?
A. ITWLinx towerMAX DS/2
B. Analog surge protector
C. ITWLinx towerMAX SCL/8
D. IP Office Barrier Box
Answer: D

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NO.3 In Windows Services, which tab would you use to allow the VoiceMail Pro service to run as a specific
user?
A. General
B. Advanced
C. Log On
D. Dependencies
E. User
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three requirements are collected during the Infrastructure Data Gathering phase? (Choose
three.)
A. Productivity Requirements
B. Physical Layer: Existing Telecom Infrastructure
C. Above Physical Layer: Existing Data Network
D. Line of Business application integration needs
E. Current PBX/Key System Features and Dial Plan
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. 1151D1 Individual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery Backup
C. Class "A" 24 volt power supply
D. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Call routing in a multi site SCN solution needs careful planning to prevent which three.? (Choose three.)
A. VCM resources are not over subscribed.
B. VMPro ports are not over subscribed.
C. Trunk ports are not over subscribed.
D. ACD routes are not compromised.
E. Calls are not tromboned.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Your customer has requested that you implement a plan to give their two sites complete resiliency.
Which two will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Resiliency License
B. IP Phones with backup call server
C. IP500v2 with redundant processor
D. Preferred Edition
Messaging at both locations
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You need to implement the new tourist information center (TIC) in Milan. The requirement is to have an
Auto Attendant that can supply up to three levels (caller can choose option 1, then 2, and finally option 3)
for 10 different information groups such as City Guides, "points of view", Hotels with available room, etc.
An additional requirement is to have the voicemail to email option for all people working at the TIC of
Milan.
Which IP Office version will meet these requirements for the least cost?
A. IP Office Preferred Edition
B. IP Office Preferred Edition and IP Office Advanced Edition
C. IP Office Essential Edition
D. IP Office Advanced Edition
E. IP Office Basic Edition
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is running SIP phones that are locked down to G.729a.
What is the bandwidth used for the speech of ten simultaneous calls?
A. 63 Kbps
B. 80 Kbps
C. 560 Kbps
D. 640 Kbps
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two cards can give the IP500 control unit the full ability to interface to a T1/E1 ISDN trunk
without additional licenses? (Choose two.)
A. IP 500 PRI U
B. Voice Compression Module
C. ISDN U
D. PRI 24/30
E. Legacy Carrier Card
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 A client requests VoiceMail Pro with UMS to be installed. During the installation process the option for
UMS does not appear.
What is the cause?
A. The UMS service is installed automatically.
B. The UMS licenses have not been loaded.
C. The server platform does not meet the requirements.
D. The Windows account does not have permission.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two licenses are required to support an Interactive Voice Response (IVR) and Text To Speech
(TTS) enabled auto attendant? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Essential System license
B. IP Office Preferred System license
C. IP Office Advanced System license
D. VMPro TTS (Generic)
E. Database license
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 A customer has opened up another location in London that will have four employees and wants to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed for over a
year without any software revisions.
Which two solutions do you recommend for the London location? (Choose two.)
A. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 and the 12 port Ethernet switch on a UPS, ground the IP500,
upgrade the IP500 to the same version as the IP500 in New York City, install four digital phones, and
verify the correct software version on the phones.
B. Install the IP500 with VCM 32, add a digital station module on the IP500, Put the IP500 and the DS
module on a UPS, earth ground the IP500 and the digital station module, match the IP500 and DS
module with the version level with New York City and install the four digital phones.
C. Install four digital phones and create a VPN connection between London and New York City for the
digital phones to connect back to the digital station module in New York City.
D. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 on a UPS, a 12 port POE switch on a UPS, earth ground the IP500,
match the IP Office version level with New York City, install four IP Phones, and verify the correct
software version on the IP phones.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need phones, voicemail, and meet me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will also use it for
inbound and outbound calls. The main site has forty users and one fax machine. The remote site has
fifteen users and one fax machine.
Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site to support all digital phones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer is requesting space required for an IP500 and expansion modules. IT says that they have
12U space (2U = 73mm / 2.9") available in their rack. 35 DS phones and 30 analog phones are required.
The customer also has one analog trunk. In case of power failure, one analog phone has to ring. The
VMPRO server takes 4U space on the rack.
What is the minimum space required for the IP Office?
A. 2U
B. 6U
C. 8U
D. 12U
Answer: B

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