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2013年9月21日星期六

Cisco 642-661 exam study materials

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Exam Code: 642-661
Exam Name: Cisco (CCIP Configuring BGP on Cisco Routers (BGP))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 204 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 When creating iBGP multipaths which three criteria must be met by multiple paths to the same
destination? (Choose three.)
A.Router IDs must be the same on all routers.
B.Each destination must have a different next-hop address.
C.The destination AS-number must be different for each destination.
D.Multi-exit discriminator attributes must be the same on all paths.
E.Interior Gateway Protocol distance must be identical on each path.
Correct:B D E

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NO.2 In the diagram, the customer is using BGP to connect to a single ISP over two permanent links.
In this scenario, which input and output prefix-list filtering is typically enabled on the ISP routers?
(Choose two.)
A.ip prefix-list test-in permit 10.1.1.0/24 le 32
B.ip prefix-list test-in permit 10.0.0.0/8 le 32
C.ip prefix-list test-in permit 0.0.0.0/0
D.ip prefix-list test-out permit 10.1.1.0/24 le 32
E.ip prefix-list test-out permit 10.0.0.0/8 le 32
F.ip prefix-list test-out permit 0.0.0.0/0
Correct:A F

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NO.3 Based on the R1 router BGP configuration shown, which three statements are correct?
(Choose three.)
A.R1 is in AS 50101 according to the 192.168.100.1 neighbor.
B.R1 is in AS 50101 according to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
C.The 192.168.100.1 neighbor must be directly connected to R1.
D.R1 is a route-reflector client.
E.The 10.4.4.4 neighbor is an EBGP neighbor.
F.BGP updates coming in from the 192.168.100.1 neighbor must be processed by the setlp route-map.
Correct:A C F

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NO.4 Which command is used to configure the external, confederation-wide AS number?
A.router(config)#router bgp {as-number}
B.router(config-router)#bgp confederation peers {as-number}
C.router(config-router)#bgp confederation identifier {as-number}
D.router(config-router)#bgp cluster-id {as-number}
E.router(config-router)#neighbor {ip address} remote-as {as-number}
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which two of these statements about hierarchical route reflectors are correct? (Choose two.)
A.A route reflector can be a client of another route reflector.
B.Each cluster within the hierarchy can only contain one route reflector.
C.The hierarchy can be as deep as needed.
D.A route reflector can have clients in different clusters.
E.Hierarchical route reflectors are set up using three levels (access, distribution, and core layers).
Correct:A C

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NO.6 Which two of the following are true regarding the BGP Prefix-Based outbound route filtering
feature? (Choose two.)
A.IP multicast routes are not supported.
B.Outbound route filtering is configured only on a per-address family basis.
C.Outbound route filtering can be configured for either iBGP or eBGP sessions.
D.The outbound route filter can be defined in a Prefix list, Distribute list or Access lists.
E.Outbound route filtering is more effective when a distance vector IGP is used.
Correct:A B

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NO.7 How can you prevent multihomed customers with connections to two service providers from
acting as a transit AS?
A.Enable BGP synchronization on all the customer routers.
B.Use MED to influence the inbound traffic from the ISPs.
C.Use static routing to the ISPs.
D.Use an AS-path access-list to filter the BGP updates to the ISPs.
E.Use conditional advertisements when sending BGP updates to the ISPs.
Correct:D

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NO.8 Look at the picture.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.9 What can cause a single sourced iBGP route not to be selected as the best route?
A.The BGP MED is 0.
B.The BGP next-hop is unreachable.
C.The BGP origin is incomplete.
D.The BGP weight is 0.
E.The BGP local preference is 0.
F.BGP synchronization is disabled.
Correct:B

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NO.10 Look at the picture.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice4

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NO.11 Based on the following show ip bgp neighbors 2.2.2.2 output, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)R1#show ip bgp neighbors 2.2.2.2BGP neighbor is 2.2.2.2, remote AS 102, internal
linkIndex 1, Offset 0, Mask 0x2BGP version 4, remote router ID 66.0.0.1BGP state=Established,
table version=1, up for 00:14:52Last read 00:00:52, hold time is 180, keepalive interval is 60
secondsMinimum time between advertisement runs is 5 secondsReceived 233 messages, 0
notifications, 0 in queueSent 206 messages, 0 notifications, 0 in queuePrefix advertised 0,
suppressed 0, withdrawn 0Connections established 17; dropped 16Last reset 00:15:02, due to
User reset18 accepted prefixes consume 576 bytes, maximum limit 20Threshold for warning
message 80%0 history paths consume 0 bytes
A.R1 has accepted 20 prefixes from the 2.2.2.2 IBGP neighbor.
B.R1 generated a warning message to the router's console after the 2.2.2.2 IBGP neighbor sent 16
prefixes to R1.
C.R1 generated a warning message to the router's console after the 2.2.2.2 IBGP neighbor sent 15
prefixes to R1.
D.R1 will drop its neighbor relationship to the 2.2.2.2 IBGP neighbor if 2.2.2.2 sends two more additional
prefixes to R1.
E.R1 will drop its neighbor relationship to the 2.2.2.2 IBGP neighbor if 2.2.2.2 sends three more additional
prefixes to R1.
Correct:B E

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NO.12 Look at the picture.
Correct:
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice6

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NO.13 Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the route-map PEER-FILTER have on the route
24.11.62.0/24 with a community of 10:100 injected by the peer router in AS632?
A.weight will be set to 100
B.weight will be set to 150
C.local preference will be set to 105
D.weight will be set to 100, local preference will be set to 105
E.weight will be set to 150, local preference will be set to 105
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which of these situations best describe when to use the AS number translation feature?
A.All single-homed customers are using public AS numbers.
B.All single-homed customers are using private AS numbers.
C.All multihomed customers are using public AS numbers.
D.All multihomed customers are assigned different AS numbers from different ISPs.
Correct:D

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NO.15 Which two configuration commands will complete the BGP configuration on R1 so it will
conditionally announce the 172.0.0.0/8 prefix to R4 via BGP? (Choose two.)hostname R1!!output
omitted!1. ___________________________!router bgp 65001neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as
65001neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 65001neighbor 4.4.4.4 remote-as 387!2.
____________________________!
A.2. network 172.16.0.0auto-summary
B.2. network 172.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0
C.1. ip route 172.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 null0
D.1. ip route 172.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 null0 255
E.1. ip route 172.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
F.2. aggregate-address 172.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0
Correct:B E

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NO.16 The neighbor {ip-address} maximum-prefix {maximum number} command prevents which
router condition?
A.frequent BGP session resets
B.routing instability
C.asymmetric routing
D.CPU and memory exhaustion
E.route flaps
Correct:D

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NO.17 Which BGP configuration option is designed to reduce router processing load caused by
unstable routes?
A.neighbor {ip-address} maximum-prefix {number}
B.bgp dampening
C.no sync
D.bgp deterministic-med
E.sync
F.bgp scan-time
Correct:B

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NO.18 Which configuration will enable the R1 router in the AS51003 sub-AS (member-AS) as a route
reflector with neighbors 10.1.1.1 and 10.2.2.2 as its route-reflector clients?
A.! R1 router bgp 51003 bgp confederation identifier 55111 bgp confederation peers 51001 51002
neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 51003 neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 51003 neighbor 10.1.1.1
route-reflector-client neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-reflector-client
B.! R1 router bgp 51003 bgp confederation identifier 55111 bgp confederation peers 51001 51002
neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 51001 neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 51002 neighbor 10.1.1.1
route-reflector-client neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-reflector-client
C.! R1 router bgp 55111 bgp confederation identifier 51003 neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 51003 neighbor
10.2.2.2 remote-as 51003 neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-reflector-client neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-reflector-client
D.! R1 router bgp 55111 bgp confederation identifier 51003 neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 55111 neighbor
10.2.2.2 remote-as 55111 neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-reflector-client neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-reflector-client
Correct:A

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NO.19 Lab
Correct:

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NO.20 What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A.to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B.to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C.to improve BGP convergence time
D.to tune the BGP update interval
E.to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct:A C

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Cisco 351-001 PDF

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Exam Code: 351-001
Exam Name: Cisco (CCIE Routing and Switching Written)
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Total Q&A: 238 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
In the diagram, the switches are running IEEE 802.1s MST. Which ports are in the MST blocking state?
A. GE-1/2 and GE-2/1
B. GE-1/1 and GE-2/2
C. GE-3/2 and GE-4/1
D. no ports are in the blocking state
E. There is not enough information to determine which ports are in the blocking state.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three port states are used by RSTP 802.1w? (Choose three.)
A. Listening
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
E. Discarding
F. Disabled
Answer: BCE

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NO.3 Why does RSTP have a better convergence time than 802.1D?
A. It is newer
B. It has smaller timers
C. It has less overhead
D. It is not timer-based
Answer: D

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NO.4 The classic Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1D 1998) uses which sequence of variables to determine the
best received BPDU?
A. 1) lowest root bridge id,
2) lowest sender bridge id,
3) lowest port id,
4) lowest root path cost
B. 1) lowest root path cost,
2) lowest root bridge id,
3) lowest sender bridge id,
4) lowest sender port id
C. 1) lowest root bridge id,
2) lowest sender bridge id,
3) lowest root path cost
4) lowest sender port id
D. 1) lowest root bridge id,
2) lowest root path cost,
3) lowest sender bridge id,
4) lowest sender port id
Answer: D

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NO.5 Spanning Tree Protocol calculates path cost based on which of these?
A. interface bandwidth
B. interface delay
C. interface bandwidth and delay
D. hop count
E. bridge priority
Answer: A

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NO.6 As a network administrator, can you tell me what the root guard feature provides in a bridged network?
A. It ensures that BPDUs sent by the root bridge are forwarded in a timely manner
B. It enforces the root bridge placement in the network
C. It ensures that all ports receiving BPDUs from the root bridge are in the forwarding state.
D. It ensures that the bridge is elected as Root Bridge in the network.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1s defines the ability to deploy which of these?
A. one global STP instance for all VLANs
B. one STP instance for each VLAN
C. one STP instance per set of VLANs
D. one STP instance per set of bridges
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of these correctly identifies a difference between the way BPDUs are handled by 802.1w and
802.1D?
A. 802.1D bridges do not relay BPDUs.
B. 802.1w bridges do not relay BPDUs.
C. 802.1D bridges only relay BPDUs received from the root.
D. 802.1w bridges only relay BPDUs received from the root.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Loop guard and UniDirectional Link Detection both protect against Layer 2 STP loops. In which two
ways does loop guard differ from UDLD in loop detection and prevention? (Choose two)
A. Loop guard can be used with root guard simultaneously on the same port on the same VLAN while
UDLD cannot.
B. UDLD protects against STP failures caused by cabling problems that create one-way links.
C. Loop guard detects and protects against duplicate packets being received and transmitted on different
ports.
D. UDLD protects against unidirectional cabling problems on copper and fiber media.
E. Loop guard protects against STP failures caused by problems that result in the loss of BPDUs from a
designated switch port
Answer: BE

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NO.10 You have done a partial migration from 802.1D STP to 802.1w STP. Which of the following is true?
A. 802.1D and 802.1w interoperate only when the 802.1D STP domain supports rapid convergence.
B. Ports leading to 802.1D devices will run in compatibility mode, while the rest of the ports will run in
802.1w mode.
C. This is an invalid configuration and a partial migration cannot be done.
D. The bridge timers will be set to match the 802.1D devices.
E. A secondary root bridge will always be populated within the 802.1D domain.
F. If the root bridge is selected within the 802.1D domain, the whole STP domain will run in 802.1D
compatibility mode.
G. In partially migrated 802.1w networks, it is recommended to keep the STP diameter below 4.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
Which switching feature is being tested?
A. loop guard
B. PortFast
C. root guard
D. BDPU guard
Answer: A

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NO.12 If a port configured with STP loop guard stops receiving BPDUs, the port will be put into which state?
A. learning state
B. listening state
C. forwarding state
D. loop-inconsistent state
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which standard supports multiple instances of spanning tree?
A. 802.1D
B. 802.1s
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1z
Answer: B

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NO.14 Prior to 802.1w, Cisco implemented a number of proprietary enhancements to 802.1D to improve
convergence in a Layer 2 network. Which statement is correct?
A. Only UplinkFast and BackboneFast are specified in 802.1w; PortFast must be manually configured.
B. Only PortFast is specified in 802.1w; UplinkFast and BackboneFast must be manually configured.
C. None of the proprietary Cisco enhancements are specified in 802.1w.
D. PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast are specified in 802.1w.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
In the diagram, the switches are running IEEE 802.1w RSPT.
On which ports should root guard be enabled in order to facilitate deterministic root bridge election under
normal and failure scenarios?
A. GE-3/1, GE-3/2
B. FE-2/1, FE-3/2
C. GE-1/1.GE-1/2
D. GE-4/1, GE-4/2
E. GE-2/1, GE-2/2
F. GE-3/1, GE-3/2, GE-4/1, GE-4/2, FE-2/1, FE-3/2
Answer: F

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NO.16 When STP UplinkFast is enabled on a switch utilizing the default bridge priority, what will the new bridge
priority be changed to?
A. 8192
B. 16384
C. 49152
D. 65535
Answer: C

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NO.17 What two features in Cisco switches help prevent Layer 2 loops? (Choose two)
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Hot Standby Router Protocol
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
D. PortFast
E. Root guard
F. Loop guard
Answer: AF

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NO.18 Under which two circumstances would an RSTP bridge flush its CAM table? (Choose two)
A. Upon a port state change
B. Upon receiving a topology change notification
C. When transitioning from discarding to forwarding
D. When transitioning from forwarding to discarding
E. Only when changing from listening to discarding
F. When CAM resources have been completely used up
Answer: BC

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NO.19 What is the purpose of the STP PortFast BPDU guard feature?
A. enforce the placement of the root bridge in the network
B. ensure that a port is transitioned to a forwarding state quickly if a BPDU is received
C. enforce the borders of an STP domain
D. ensure that any BPDUs received are forwarded into the STP domain
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two of these are used in the selection of a root bridge in a network utilizing Spanning Tree
Protocol IEEE 802.1D.? (Choose two)
A. Designated Root Cost
B. bridge ID priority
C. max age
D. bridge ID MAC address
E. Designated Root Priority
F. forward delay
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 642-241
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Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise design, the customer requires that agents are able
to make personal outbound calls from their Cisco IP phone, but they do not want to allow the
agent to use their ACD line for these calls. How would this requirement be addressed given the
following: Agent ACD Line: 1000 (DN) Allow PSTN calling search space: Allows outbound calls to
PSTN. Block PSTN calling search space: Blocks outbound calls to PSTN.
A.add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
B.add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space
C.add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
D.add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which of the following configurations are supported with the Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise solution?
A.Cisco Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
B.Cisco Agent Desktop without Communications Manager Attendant Console
C.Cisco CTI Object Server Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
D.Cisco Siebel Driver/CRM Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which type of user access is not controlled by Microsoft Windows Active Directory in Cisco
Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A.agent login
B.supervisor login
C.WebView user login
D.service account login
Correct:A

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NO.4 When the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system transfers a call to the Cisco Unified IP
IVR to queue the call using a translation route to VRU, what label is sent to the routing client?
A.Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Busy label
B.Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI port
C.Cisco Unified Communications Manager MTP
D.Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI route point
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which protocol does the Cisco Unified ICM use to interface with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A.AXL
B.SIP
C.H.323
D.JTAPI
E.SOAP
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which two configuration tasks are necessary in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for
the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose two.)
A.configure agent IP phone, supervisor IP phone, and CTI route points
B.configure agent ID, supervisor ID, and system administrator password
C.configure agent, supervisor, and CTI user accounts
D.configure scripts for call routing
E.configure call routing to agents
F.configure device associations of agent phones and CTI devices with the PG user
Correct:A F

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NO.7 Which of these functions is not a function of the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
solution?
A.reporting with WebView
B.CTI desktop functionality for agent state control
C.call-routing functionality based on real-time conditions
D.instructing queue points to play specific messages to callers
E.accepting media streams and acting as a conference bridge
Correct:E

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NO.8 Which of the following Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal call-flow models does not require a
Cisco IOS-based VoiceXML Gateway?
A.Standalone Self-Service
B.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control
C.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Collect
D.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Self-Service
E.Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Network Interface Controller-based Call Control with Cisco
Unified Customer Voice Portal Queue, Collect, and Self-Service
Correct:B

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NO.9 When sizing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster in a Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise solution with the Cisco Unified IP IVR, which factor must be taken into account?
A.the number of dialed numbers configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Router
B.the maximum number of concurrent calls in progress in the Cisco Unified IP IVR, serviced by CTI ports
C.the number of Run VRU script nodes executed by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing
script once the call is terminated in the Cisco Unified IP IVR
D.the total number of CTI route points, CTI ports, and BHCAs associated with the Cisco Unified IP IVR
E.the maximum number of concurrent agents in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system
Correct:D

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NO.10 Which two of the following are not parts of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager device
pool configuration? (Choose two.)
A.primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager group
B.SRST reference
C.region
D.location
E.Media Resource Group List
Correct:A D

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Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Data Center Application Services Implementation)
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NO.1 Cisco ACE module allows enterprises to achieve important IT objectives in the field of
application delivery, which items are included? (Select all appropriate)
A.Accelerate application performance
B.Improve the availability of application at large
C.Ensure the security of the data center and key services application
D.To promote the combination of data centers by reducing the use amount of servers, Load Balancers
and data center firewalls
Correct:A B C D

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NO.2 Which three statements best describe Cisco Application Networking Manager(ANM)? (Choose
three)
A.Cisco ANM can manage virtual products and management-level domains through a number of Cisco
ACE modules
B.Be able to discover, deploy, monitor and report a number of virtual products on Cisco ACE modules
C.Accomplish completely transparent deployment
D.The speed is low in the implementation process.
Correct:A B C

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NO.3 When configuring a Cisco ACE Module for deployment in an existing Cisco Catalyst 6500 Switch,
what is the objective of the command svclc vlan-group 5 100-102?
A.assigns the VLANs 100-102 to the line card in slot 5
B.groups the VLANs 100-102 into line card group 5
C.allocates the VLANs to be assigned to the Cisco ACE appliance ports
D.creates the VLANs 100-102
Correct:B

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NO.4 A resource class is defined as below: allocated a minimum and maximum of 40% of all
resources two member contexts In this resource class, which two actions will be denied by the OS?
(Choose two.)
A.increasing the maximum allocation to unlimited
B.adding additional member contexts
C.increasing the minimum allocation to 60%
D.removing member contexts
Correct:B C

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NO.5 For the following commands, which one would be used to verify that a management policy you
created called "remote-mgmt" has been applied to interface VLAN 231?
A.ace/context# show service-policy interface vlan 231
B.ace/context# show service-policy remote-mgmt
C.ace/context# show interface vlan 231 service-policy
D.ace/context# show policy-map remote-mgmt
Correct:B

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NO.6 A single Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance deals with all data center and the data center traffic. At
which traffic level point will you consider purchasing a second Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?
A.when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 80,000
B.when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 20,000
C.when the L7 Perf CPS reaches 40,000
D.when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 100,000
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which installation requirement is for Cisco ANM?
A.Windows 2003 Server 2 GB RAM 120 GB HD
B.Windows NT 4.1 2 GB RAM 50 GB HD
C.Ubuntu Linux Server 7.0 4GB RAM 80 GB HD
D.Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4.5 2 GB RAM 60 GB HD
Correct:D

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NO.8 A customer of yours has decided to configure two Cisco ACE Modules in a high-availability
solution. This customer has six contexts configured and has decided to use the active-active
model. How many fault-tolerant groups will be needed if it splits its active contexts evenly
between both Cisco ACE Modules?
A.4
B.8
C.6
D.2
Correct:C

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NO.9 Taking a Cisco ACE Module implementation into consideration, a site survey should first be
taken to confirm which two requirements? (Choose two.)
A.Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Supervisor Engine 32 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or later
B.Cisco Catalyst 4500 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series
Supervisor Engine 4 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(31)SGA or later
C.Cisco 7600 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco 7600 Series Supervisor Engine 720
Cisco 7600 Series Route Switch Processor 720 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or later
D.Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Supervisor Engine 720 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or later
Correct:C D

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NO.10 A customer environment has the following configuration: 100 separately-managed application
servers active/standby high availability requirement for 10,000 SSL TPS The customer is looking
to migrate to Cisco ACE solely for the features of SLB and SSL. Which solution will be the best
one?
A.two Cisco ACE appliances
B.two Cisco ACE modules
C.tour Cisco ACE Appliances
D.a single Cisco ACE module
Correct:B

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NO.11 NetQoS adopts the method of performance priority to manage the network infrastructures,
which main functions does it provide?(Select all appropriate)
A.The end-to-end performance monitoring
B.Analyzing the communication traffic
C.Device performance management
D.IT cost calculation
E.Trace network analysis
Correct:A B C D E

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NO.12 Which three features are of a Cisco ACE virtualization implementation? (Choose three.)
A.separate routing table per context
B.global administration and monitoring
C.separate image versions per context
D.separate management and data resource control per context
Correct:A B D

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NO.13 Which statement best describes a redundant installation by use of content switching?
A.It uses GSLB for global site load balancing.
B.It is also called site selection.
C.It only works for TCP-based applications.
D.It provides local redundancy in a single data center.
Correct:D

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NO.14 Which two descriptions are correct when using a Cisco ACE Module in a typical routed-mode
configuration? (Choose two.)
A.The Cisco ACE Module is out of path of the client-server traffic.
B.The Cisco ACE Module is in the path of the client-server traffic.
C.The Cisco ACE Module is assigned only a single VLAN.
D.The Cisco ACE Module's client-side VLAN and the server-side VLAN are separate VLANs on different
subnets.
Correct:B D

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NO.15 The output from a Cisco ACE Module show version command is displayed as follows: Software
loader: Version 12.2[118] system: Version 3.0(0)A1(2) [build 3.0(0)A1(2)
jwilley_23:41:53-2006/06/11_ /auto/adbu-rel/ws/REL_3_0_0_A1_2] system image file: [LCP]
disk0:c6ace-t1k9-mz.3.0.0_A1_2.bin installed license: no feature license is installed For the
following options, which SLB software version is running on the Cisco ACE Module?
A.3.0(0)
B.1.2
C.12.2
D.1.18
Correct:B

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NO.16 You confirm that there may be a problem with the fault-tolerant VLAN. As a first step, which
command will be used to discover if any heartbeats have been missed?
A.ace/admin# show ft stats
B.ace/context# show ft group detail
C.ace/admin# show ft peer detail
D.ace/context# show ft peer detail
Correct:A

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NO.17 Refer to the following items, KeepAlive-Appliance Protocol is based on which protocol?
A.CAPP over TCP
B.CAPP
C.CAPP over IP
D.CAPP over UDP
Correct:D

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NO.18 Examine the following options, an existing DNS name server is being replaced with a Cisco
GSS. Which IOS license will be needed?
A.Cisco Name Server license
B.Cisco Standard license
C.Cisco Extended license
D.Cisco Network Registrar license
Correct:D

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NO.19 On the basis of the following options, KAL-AP queries are allowed in a Cisco ACE Module via
which type of class map and policy map?
A.UDP class map and load-balancing policy map
B.Layer 4 class map and Layer 4 policy map
C.KAL-AP class map and KAL-AP policy map
D.management class map and management policy map
Correct:D

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NO.20 The Cisco GSS serves as an authoritative name server for one or more domains. When
deploying it behind a firewall, for the following items, which three must be configured on the
firewall to permit communication through to it? (Choose three.)
A.DNS queries
B.CDP messages
C.other protocols (FTP, Telnet, SSH, SNMP)
D.keepalive protocol (KAL-AP, ICMP, HTTP, and user defined TCP ports)
Correct:A C D

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Exam Code: 642-181
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Unified Presence Design and Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 You are a network administrator for certways. You have just configured directory synchronization for
users of a Cisco Unified Presence solution. In order that Cisco Unified Personal Communicator logins to
authenticate with the directory, which of the following would you choose?
A.a secure link with Cisco Unified Communications Manager database
B.LDAP authentication enabled on Cisco Unified Presence
C.DC-Directory authentication with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.LDAP authentication enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer:D

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NO.2 A user uses IBM Lotus Sametime to try a Click-to-Call, and the call gets rejected. The following are
possible causes of this problem. Which one is least likely to be the cases?
A.Rerouting calling search space on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.Cisco Unified Presence SIP proxy settings
C.Out-of-Dialog calling search space on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.IBM Lotus Sametime users using the default Sametime community
Answer:B

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NO.3 One of the following is a peripheral component of Cisco Unified Presence. Which one is it?
A.sync agent
B.profile agent
C.SIP presence engine
D.SIP proxy
Answer:B

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NO.4 User accounts for Cisco Unified Presence server are created with of the following applications. Which is
the proper application?
A.Cisco Unified Presence server administration
B.Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration
C.Cisco Unified Personal Communicator administration
D.third-party administration
Answer:B

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NO.5 Your Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 5.x has been upgraded to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Release 6.x, and Cisco Unified Presence Release 1.x has been upgraded to
Cisco Unified Presence Release 6.x. After upgrade, which feature will not be found?
A.server redundancy
B.SIP PUBLISH trunk
C.calendaring via Microsoft Exchange
D.adjunct licensing
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 642-681
Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers Exam)
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Total Q&A: 93 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-21

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NO.1 Which two key features are unique to the controller-based feature set? (Choose two.)
A. fast secure roaming
B. rogue access point detection
C. access point participation in RF management
D. access point registration via digital certificate
E. dynamic RF control without a dedicated management platform
Answer: DE

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NO.2 What is the Cisco-recommended limit of standalone access points to be managed by a CiscoWorks
WLSE 1130-19 with RF management enabled?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 1800
D. 2500
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three devices are required to implement a Cisco 2700 Series Wireless Location Appliance?
(Choose three.)
A. wireless controller
B. wireless domain server
C. Cisco Wireless Control System
D. controller-based access point
E. standalone access point
F. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 Which one of the following integrated services routers supports the integrated 2.4-GHz b/g access
points?
A. Cisco 1812
B. Cisco 1811
C. Cisco 1841
D. Cisco 1803
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of wireless devices that a Cisco 2700 Series Wireless Location
Appliance can track, operating with Cisco WCS version 4.0?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2500
Answer: D

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NO.6 How many mesh access points can be placed on a map with efficient link rendering in Cisco WCS?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Newton Manufacturing Company has three facilities that are located in Columbia, South Carolina.
The corporate office is located in an 11-story building downtown. The R&D facility is located on the north
side of the city approximately 4 miles (6.4 km) from the corporate office in a five-story building. The
manufacturing facility is located approximately 6 miles (9.6 km) to the northwest of the corporate office.
Line of sight exists from the downtown office to all facilities. Users at the manufacturing plant require
network connectivity for file-sharing and e-mail, while the users at the R&D facility require high-speed
Internet access with the ability to send large CAD drawings to the corporate office and large machine
control files to the manufacturing facility. Presently, the manufacturing facility is connected to the
corporate office by a 64-kbps leased line, and the R&D facility is connected to both the corporate office
and the manufacturing facility by a dedicated T1 line. The company plans to add a second line of
development at the R&D facility within the next 60 days. The current T1 lines are at a constant 70 percent
utilization rate. The current projected lead time for installation of additional lines is 90 days if the cable
plant will support it.
Which deployment option would provide the most benefit to the customer?
A. point-to-point link from corporate to manufacturing, and a point-to-point link from corporate to R&D
B. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the manufacturing facility
C. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the corporate office
D. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the R&D facility
Answer: D

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NO.8 In a mesh network, what is the recommended hop-count limit of a mesh access point from its
associated root access point?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.9 OFDM provides which improvement over DSSS in the 2.4-GHz range?
A. greater resistance to multipath interference
B. more nonoverlapping channels
C. more bandwidth per channel
D. full-duplex communication
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer in the United States requires connectivity between two campus locations that are located
6 miles (9.65 km) apart. The customer also needs a minimum data rate of 54 Mbps in an area that is
known to have 2.4-GHz interference. Which two devices will provide a bridge link and avoid the
interference? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series Access Point
B. Cisco Aironet 1210 Series Access Point
C. Cisco Aironet 1242AG Series Access Point
D. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge
E. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series Wireless Bridge
Answer: CE

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NO.11 The CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine uses which protocol for radio management?
A. CCKM
B. LWAPP
C. SNMP
D. WLCCP
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statement describes how RSSI information is processed in a WLAN with a location appliance
using controller-based products?
A. Access points aggregate RSSI information.
B. WLAN controllers compute RSSI information.
C. The location appliance collects the RSSI information.
D. The Cisco WCS collects and aggregates the RSSI information and forwards it to the location
appliance.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The Newton manufacturing company has three facilities that are located in Columbia, South Carolina.
The corporate office is located in an 11-story building downtown. The R&D facility is located on the north
side of the city approximately 4 miles (6.4 km) from the corporate office in a five-story building. The
manufacturing facility is located approximately 6 miles (9.6 km) to the northwest of the corporate office.
Line of sight exists from the downtown office to all facilities. Users at the manufacturing plant require
network connectivity for file sharing and e-mail, while the users at the R&D facility require high-speed
Internet access with the ability to send large CAD drawings to the corporate office and large machine
control files to the manufacturing facility. Presently, the manufacturing facility is connected to the
corporate office by a 64-kbps leased line, and the R&D facility is connected to both the corporate office
and the manufacturing facility by a dedicated T1 line. The company plans to add a second line of
development at the R&D facility within the next 60 days. The current T1 lines are at a constant 70-percent
utilization rate. The current projected lead time for installation of additional lines is 90 days if the current
cable plant will support it.
A wireless bridging solution would provide which three benefits to the customer? (Choose three.)
A. rapid deployment
B. immunity to weather
C. increased bandwidth
D. guaranteed bandwidth
E. increased security
F. lower total cost of ownership
Answer: ACF

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NO.14 The Cisco 3200 Series Mobile Access Router has integrated wireless support for which two
FCC-approved frequency ranges? (Choose two.)
A. 900 to 928 MHz
B. 2.400 to 2.4835 GHz
C. 4.940 to 4.990 GHz
D. 5.150 to 5.250 GHz
E. 5.725 to 5.825 GHz
Answer: BC

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NO.15 How many prior configuration versions can be archived on the CiscoWorks WLSE?
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
Answer: B

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NO.16 How is a bridge group name used in a wireless mesh deployment?
A. It is used to retrieve the secret shared key.
B. It logically groups access points to avoid interference from neighboring mesh networks.
C. It is used as a password in communication preceding LWAPP.
D. It is used to join the outdoor mesh network with the controller mobility group.
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of access points that a high-end Cisco WCS server can support?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 3000
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer has a small remote site with 10 standalone access points. In which two of the following
scenarios would it be appropriate to implement CiscoWorks WLSE Express? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP) security is required and an external AAA server is available.
B. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP) security is required and no external AAA server is available.
C. EAP-FAST security is required and no external AAA server is available.
D. EAP-FAST security is required and an AAA server is available.
E. MAC authentication is required and no external AAA server is available.
F. MAC authentication is required and an external AAA server is available.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which three wireless intrusion-prevention signatures are part of the standard signature set provided by
the Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose three.)
A. ad-hoc network detection
B. rogue network detection
C. rogue access point detection
D. deauth flood detection
E. fake access point detection
F. NetStumbler detection
Answer: DEF

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NO.20 Which two statements correctly describe the Cisco Catalyst WiSM? (Choose two.)
A. It supports up to 100 access points per module.
B. It supports up to 200 access points per module.
C. It supports up to 300 access points per module.
D. It has a maximum of four modules per chassis.
E. It has a maximum of five modules per chassis.
F. It has a maximum of six modules per chassis.
Answer: CE

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