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Exam Code: E20-322
Exam Name: EMC (Technology Architect Solutions Design)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 568 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 A SQL Server implementation has been experiencing poor I/O performance. You are asked to identify
the root cause of the performance issues.
Which tool should you use for your analysis?
A.SQL Server Profiler
B.SQL Server Configuration Manager
C.SQL Query Editor
D.SQL Server VDI
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer would like to eliminate tape from their backup environment. They do not have a SAN
infrastructure.
Which solution should you recommend?
A.EDL 4406
B.Symmetrix with SATA
C.CLARiiON CX with SATA
D.NS80 with internal VTLU
Answer:D

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NO.3 Your customer is experiencing performance issues with three CLARiiON-attached hosts and you've
already ruled out server hardware and network latency as possible causes. All of these hosts' LUNs are
part of the same RAID group, so you now need to determine which host's LUNs are causing the RAID
group's performance degradation.
Which Navisphere Analyzer data view would help you determine which LUNs are having the greatest
effect on the disks' performance?
A.Performance Detail line chart
B.LUN Performance Survey chart
C.I/O Distribution Size Detail chart
D.LUN I/O Disk Detail chart
Answer:D

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NO.4 A request has been made to collect the information that has been gathered by SAN Advisor. You notice
the data has not been collected.
In order for SAN Advisor to receive information about the environment, what service is used?
A.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter StorageScope Repository
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
Answer:D

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NO.5 In addition to "Software as a Service" and "Infrastructure as a Service," which main category of service
falls within the definition of cloud computing?
A.Platform as a Service
B.Hardware as a Service
C.VM as a Service
D.Facility as a Service
Answer:A

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NO.6 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site. They will be using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup
application. A small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it
will eventually expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Remote Copy
B.RecoverPoint
C.Active Engine Failover
D.Virtual Tape Migration
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer is implementing a new DMX-4 system in their data center. They have decided to use
Enterprise Flash Drive (EFD) technology in their design for their critical Oracle database.
Which database objects would gain the least benefit from EFDs?
A.High transaction rate table/index
B.Lookup tables
C.Index
D.Redo logs
Answer:D

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NO.8 A customer has implemented RecoverPoint to protect a Progress database and SQL Server as a
Federated database. Changes to the Progress database and SQL Server are asynchronously replicated
to the remote disaster recovery (DR) site.
What should be done to ensure consistent recovery at the DR site for this environment?
A.Put SQL Server and the Progress database briefly into a quiescent state before taking snapshots used
for recovery
B.Use the Write Ahead transaction Logging (WAL) mechanism on the Progress and SQL Server
databases
C.Use Peer To Peer Transactional Replication for both the SQL Server and Progress databases
D.Create periodic group set bookmarks to ensure that the two databases are periodically synchronized
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which product delivers simple automation to enable end-to-end virtual-to-physical mapping of physical
storage and servers, as well as ESX servers and the virtual machines that reside on them?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.Navisphere Analyzer
C.VMware Server
D.vCenter Server
Answer:A

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NO.10 A business is planning to migrate a physical, Oracle 11g database environment to a virtualized VMAX
platform.
What would be the primary benefit to the business if such a migration were implemented?
A.Migrating to new servers or new storage devices would enable the business to maintain 100% uptime.
B.Virtualization would enable multiple Oracle database environments to run under one instance.
C.VMAX configurations would provide auto back-end load balancing configurations for Oracle dbf files.
D.Virtualization on VMAX storage would automatically lay out database objects.
Answer:A

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NO.11 How often does SAN Advisor retrieve new information from EMC Ionix ControlCenter and identify
compliance violations?
A.Only when downloading the latest support information from an EMC website
B.Only when an alert has been triggered
C.Once per week
D.Once per day
Answer:D

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NO.12 A customer uses an SCA appliance to provide environment discovery and compliance reports. The
current SCA implementation is experiencing workload issues due to the extremely large number of
objects being managed.
Which solution should you recommend to address this issue?
A.Increase the number of SCA external agents
B.Install an additional SCA appliance
C.Add an additional network interface to the SCA appliance
D.Increase the heap size on the EMC Ionix ControlCenter API server
Answer:B

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NO.13 You must design a backup solution for an existing Celerra NS80 customer. The customer has decided
that the expense of expanding their tape hardware infrastructure to support the additional load is not
justified because the data is for department-level user shares.
Which alternate solution should you use to back up the Celerra with minimal cost and disruption to their
current backup procedures?
A.Add an EMC Disk Library with 1 TB SATA drives
B.Add FC disks to the NS80 and back up using Celerra VTLUs
C.Add SATA disks to the NS80 and back up to disk
D.Add a second NS80 and replicate the backup data
Answer:C

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NO.14 You performed an analysis of the I/O profile of a SQL Server environment that has performance and
availability issues. Having identified disk contention as the primary problem, what would be your
recommendation?
A.Enable fast file initialization
B.Allocate additional spindles and migrate the transaction logs to the new RAID group
C.Move SQL transaction log and database files to the same RAID/disk group
D.Enable SQL Server to keep pages in memory
Answer:B

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NO.15 You have been requested to provide a solution that will monitor resource best practices, create alerts
when the environment exceeds recommended boundaries, and requires no agents to be installed on the
network.
Which product will provide this capability?
A.Storage Configuration Advisor
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
C.SAN Advisor
D.Storage Insight for Availability
Answer:A

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NO.16 A customer has recently purchased Open Replicator and needs to know which GUI interface would be
best for administration.
What should be your response?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.SAN Advisor
C.Symmetrix Management Console
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
Answer:C

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NO.17 How does Atmos handle data protection?
A.SOAP
B.Replication
C.Rsync
D.REST
Answer:B

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NO.18 You have been requested to create a SAN Advisor design that can accommodate 250 to 500 hosts.
Which component should be placed on its own dedicated host?
A.StorageScope Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
Answer:B

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NO.19 A customer is looking for a best practice for a mission-critical Oracle application. They require a
point-in-time copy of their database for reporting in their Symmetrix environment. This point-in-time
environment must have no impact on production.
Which configuration would you recommend?
A.Synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R1s
B.Point-in-time clone off R1s, activated and mounted at the target
C.synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time snap off the R1s
D.ynchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R2s
Answer:D

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NO.20 An organization currently uses a physical Storage Configuration Advisor (SCA) appliance to discover,
monitor, and report configuration compliance for 1,600 hosts. This number is expected to grow to 2,500 in
the near future. They would like to migrate this management function to virtual servers.
How many virtual SCA appliances are needed to meet this requirement?
A.5
B.3
C.4
D.2
Answer:C

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Exam Code: E20-335
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

NO.2 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.8 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

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NO.9 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

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NO.11 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.12 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

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NO.13 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

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NO.14 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.2 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.4 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.6 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.8 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.10 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.11 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.12 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.13 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.15 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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Exam Code: E20-324
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects )
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 A customer wants to write a script that needs to list all linked remote VNX arrays for file-based
replication. What CLI command should you recommend?
A. nas_cel -list
B. nas_cel -info
C. nas_replicate -info
D. nas_replicate -list
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which RecoverPoint/SE data protection methodology enables block protection as well as a file DR
solution?
A. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE CLR
C. RecoverPointt/SE CDP
D. RecoverPoint/SE CDP and CRR
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are gathering data from a customer environment. You have to process a number of configuration
reports.
What tool provides a simple method of processing the data gathering configuration?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. Collect Support Materials
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. CLARiiON Configuration Builder
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer has purchased a VNX to upgrade the storage for an Exchange Server cluster. What tool
should you use to gather performance data from the Exchange cluster?
A. iostat
B. sar
C. esxtop
D. perfmon
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which protocols are the best solution for Grid Computing and High Performance Computing
environments?
A. iSCSI, FCoE
B. pNFS, MPFS
C. CIFS, NFS
D. FTP, SMB2
Answer: B

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NO.6 While gathering existing customer environment information to provide a new VNX storage system
solution, you have found many different HBA types, servers, operating systems, and other SAN hardware.
Which wizard within E-Lab Navigator can be used to validate a new VNX storage solution?
A. SOE & Software Wizard
B. CLARiiON Host Attach Wizard
C. Switch Interoperability Wizard
D. Storage Array Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.7 During your design analysis you have gathered current storage configuration data and matched storage
volumes with server data. You have discovered some inconsistencies with the collected data.
What should the next step be?
A. Resolve any inconsistencies with the customer according to best practices.
B. Let the implementation engineer resolve the inconsistencies.
C. Note the inconsistencies and forward a redesign to the implementation engineer.
D. Resolve the inconsistencies yourself according to best practices.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are preparing a detailed VNX presentation for a technically-oriented customer. VNX arrays have
been in their environment for over a year. One objective of the meeting is to go over historical data. The
customer indicated that they would like to see Unisphere statistics as part of the analysis.
Assuming that statistics logging was enabled from day one, how long does the Unisphere GUI keep its
real-time statistics?
A. Real-time statistics are stored for 1 month.
B. Real-time statistics cannot be saved to disk.
C. Real-time statistics are stored for 3 months, unless the frequency interval is less than 5 minutes.
D. Real-time statistics are stored indefinitely, but requires a dedicated collection server.
Answer: B

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NO.9 When documenting the customer environment prior to a storage refresh, you discover that the
customer has an issue their backups do not complete every job. How should you proceed?
A. Have the customer resolve the issue before continuing.
B. Note the issue in the Statement of Work and continue with planning.
C. Open a case for the backup issue and resolve it yourself.
D. No actionrequired:SOW does not include resolving this type of issue.
Answer: A

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-The technical team has a specific set of requirements that they have to meet. -The manager has a
financial requirement that has to be met.
As you begin to design, it becomes clear that, in order to meet the technical goal, the financial
requirement will be exceeded. What should you do?
A. Let both teams know of the constraints and see if there can be a mutual resolution.
B. Since this is a technical project you should design to the technical team requirements.
C. Because the manager is paying for the equipment, limit the design to fit into the financial constraints.
D. Design to the technical requirement and then take enough storage out to meet the financial goal.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX MPFS configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX gateway with FC
B. VNX with iSCSI/FC
C. VNX with iSCSI/FCoE
D. VNX gateway with MPFSi
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your customer needs help understanding Unisphere statistics on a VNX, specifically the Number of
Write Cache Pages. How do you explain this metric to the customer?
A. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is derived from the sum of both SPs.
B. It is displayed per entire array, and the total number is half the sum of both SPs.
C. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is four times the sum of both SPs.
D. When FAST Cache is enabled, the number includes the FAST Cache plus the sum of both SPs.
Answer: A

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NO.13 While gathering performance data during peak workloads, which type of collection method is best
suited?
A. Larger periods of data collection over shorter intervals
B. Smaller periods of data collection over shorter intervals
C. Smaller periods of data collection over larger intervals
D. Larger periods of data collection over larger intervals
Answer: C

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NO.14 The majority of your customer's servers have highly utilized database applications that require
predictable performance.
What type of storage do you recommend.?
A. RAID Groups with traditional LUNs
B. Storage groups with thick LUNs
C. Pool with traditional LUNs
D. RAID Groups with thin LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX MPFS with iSCSI/FC
B. VNX MPFS with FC/FCoE
C. VNX gateway with iSCSI/FC
D. VNX gateway with FC
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 Your company has 3 different sales teams. Each team's sales manager has developed incentive offers
to increase the size of each sales transaction. Any sales manager whose incentive program can be
shown to increase the size of the average sales transaction will receive a bonus.
Data are available for the number and average sale amount for transactions offering one of the incentives
as well as transactions offering no incentive.
The VP of Sales has asked you to determine analytically if any of the incentive programs has resulted in a
demonstrable increase in the average sale amount. Which analytical technique would be appropriate in
this situation?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Multi-way ANOVA
C. Student's t-test
D. Wilcoxson Rank Sum Test
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best
to access their data. This colleague has a strong background in data flow languages and programming.
Which query interface would you recommend?
A. Pig
B. Hive
C. Howl
D. HBase
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for an analyst audience?
A. Pie chart
B. Area chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. ROC curve
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of numeric value does a logistic regression model estimate?
A. Probability
B. A p-value
C. Any integer
D. Any real number
Answer: A

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NO.5 The web analytics team uses Hadoop to process access logs. They now want to correlate this data
with structured user data residing in a production single-instance JDBC database. They collaborate with
the production team to import the data into Hadoop. Which tool should they use?
A. Sqoop
B. Pig
C. Chukwa
D. Scribe
Answer: A

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NO.6 In R, functions like plot() and hist() are known as what?
A. generic functions
B. virtual methods
C. virtual functions
D. generic methods
Answer: B

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NO.7 What would be considered "Big Data"?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100,000,000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100,000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Answer: B

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NO.8 Under which circumstance do you need to implement N-fold cross-validation after creating a
regression model?
A. There is not enough data to create a test set.
B. The data is unformatted.
C. There are missing values in the data.
D. There are categorical variables in the model.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data.?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
Answer: A

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NO.10 In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Answer: A

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NO.11 What does the R code
z <- f[1:10, ]
do?
A. Assigns the first 10 rows of f to the vector z
B. Assigns the 1st 10 columns of the 1st row of f to z
C. Assigns a sequence of values from 1 to 10 to z
D. Assigns the 1st 10 columns to z
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return?
SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Answer: A

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NO.13 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
The minimum support is 25%. Which rule has a confidence equal to 50%?
A. {bread,milk} => {cheese}
B. {bread} => {milk}
C. {juice} => {soda}
D. {bread} => {cheese}
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are using the Apriori algorithm to determine the likelihood that a person who owns a home has a
good credit score. You have determined that the confidence for the rules used in the algorithm is > 75%.
You calculate lift = 1.011 for the rule, "People with good credit are homeowners". What can you determine
from the lift calculation?
A. Support for the association is low
B. Leverage of the rules is low
C. The rule is coincidental
D. The rule is true
Answer: C

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NO.15 A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the
Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Na ve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which word or phrase completes the statement? Data-ink ratio is to data visualization as __________ .
A. Confusion matrix is to classifier
B. Data scientist is to big data
C. Seasonality is to ARIMA
D. K-means is to Naive Bayes
Answer: A

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NO.17 When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?
A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output
B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output
C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output
D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the
output
Answer: A

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NO.18 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
You decide to run the association rules algorithm where minimum support is 50%. Which rule has a
confidence at least 50%?
A. {cheese} => {bread}
B. {juice} => {cheese}
C. {milk} => {soda}
D. {soda} => {milk}
Answer: A

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NO.19 When creating a presentation for a technical audience, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show if the model will meet the SLA
D. Show the technique to be used in the production environment
Answer: B

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NO.20 In data visualization, what is used to focus the audience on a key part of a chart?
A. Emphasis colors
B. Detailed text
C. Pastel colors
D. A data table
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EMC (Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies)
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Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

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NO.5 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What
should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to
complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A
small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually
expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

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NO.11 What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a
backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

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NO.15 An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file
type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit.
Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port
7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a
failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to
see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

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NO.17 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application
catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

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NO.19 In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

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NO.20 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-335
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

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NO.4 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.8 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

NO.9 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

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NO.10 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.12 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

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NO.13 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

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NO.15 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-016
Exam Name: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment B in the exhibit.?
A. Availability
B. Interoperability
C. Ease of management
D. Throughput
Answer: A

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NO.2 A multi-national bank provides online services to its customers. The bank has implemented a new credit
risk analysis system with data mining capabilities. In addition, the bank wants to provide enhanced
business intelligence to its loan officers.
The application development team has determined a 20 TB storage requirement. Which application
class(es) describe(s) this environment?
A. Enterprise
B. Workgroup
C. Externally networked
D. Workgroup and externally networked
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company's 20 file servers were consolidated onto a NAS device at a cost of $350,000 for the
hardware and $75,000 for implementation services. The consolidated/replaced servers were written off
for the remaining book value of $75,000. The company will realize $60,000 per month due to this
consolidation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company's initial
investments?
A. 44%; Month 8
B. 44%; Month 9
C. 70%; Month 8
D. 70%; Month 9
Answer: B

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NO.4 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment C in the exhibit?
A. Throughput
B. Availability
C. Interoperability
D. Ease of management
Answer: A

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NO.5 After careful consideration, a business has decided to implement thin provisioning in its SAN
environment. Implementing thin provisioning will require the following investment:
- License costs = $100,000
- Other one-time costs (for example, training, installation) = $50,000 Continuing as is, storage
requirement projections over the next three years would total 70 TB. Employing thin provisioning will allow
the storage requirements to be reduced to 40 TB. The cost of storage is $40,000 per TB.
What is the return on investment (ROI) percentage for this project?
A. 7
B. 70
C. 700
D. 7000
Answer: C

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NO.6 A redundant switch contains eight-port cards with four ports per card. If one of the port cards is
unavailable for eight minutes before it is hot swapped, what is the resultant path minute of SAN
performance degradation?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: D

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NO.7 The Present Value (PV) of $50,000 in 5 years, with a discount rate of 10% each year, is represented in
the exhibit.
A company invests $98,000 on new monitoring software for its critical database. An annual yield of
$50,000 is expected.
What is the first time the company will see its investment yielding positive returns?
A. Year 1
B. Year 2
C. Year 3
D. Year 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company wants to invest in a storage networking project. What are the key business value
parameters that must be considered when making a decision to proceed with the investment?
A. Return on investment and payback period
B. Net present value and break-even point
C. Net present value and return on investment
D. Payback period and operating cost
Answer: A

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NO.9 An organization is using cloud storage to back up their employees
desktop data. The backup
application running at the organization s data center ensures moderate performance while backing up
data.
The application completes the entire backup within the stipulated backup window. By leveraging cloud
storage service, the backup application meets high-availability and high-recoverability requirements of
employees
data.
Based on the exhibit, which section accurately represents this application?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. F
Answer: C

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NO.10 A director contains eight port cards with four ports per card. If two of the director's port cards are
unavailable for five minutes, what is the path minute of SAN performance degradation?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.11 A company is deploying a new application. During the requirements gathering process, your team has
documented several key company requirements.
What could be a key functional requirement?
A. Copying data to three different locations
B. Lower storage footprint
C. Interoperability with the existing infrastructure
D. Low administrative costs per TB/storage
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company is comparing two technology options for their IT environment. Option 1 is to retain the
existing legacy environment, and Option 2 will require the replacement of the current solution with a new
solution.
Option 1:
-Operation costs including maintenance of the current infrastructure = $300,000 per year -Investment in
additional storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial cost of the new solution = $1,000,000 -Operation costs with the new infrastructure = $150,000 per
year -Investment in additional storage = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off cost for the current solution is $50,000. As a business analyst, what would you
recommend to the company based on the TCO?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.13 A company's IT organization is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain existing
legacy equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing infrastructure.
Option 1:
-Total operational costs = $300,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,000,000 -Recurring annual operational costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which course of action would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company's business operations depend on the following three applications:
A = Supply chain management
B = CAD/CAE (design)
C = e-Commerce
Which application classes are associated with these applications?
A. A=Enterprise; B=Workgroup; C=Externally networked
B. A=Externally networked; B=Workgroup; C=Enterprise
C. A=Workgroup; B=Enterprise; C=Externally networked
D. A=Workgroup; B=Externally networked; C=Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.15 An organization purchased a NAS storage infrastructure to service all its applications for three years.
Various cost components for this deployment are as follows:
- Initial cost includes the purchase cost of $2,000 and an installation charge of $400.
- Organization needs to pay $200 per year for maintenance and $100 per year as license fees.
- From Year 2, the organization must pay $1,000 per year for OS upgrades.
At the end of the three years, the organization needs to pay a recycling fee of $50 to dispose of the NAS
device that will no longer be needed.
What is the total cost of ownership (TCO) each year to implement this technology infrastructure?
A. $1,783
B. $2,675
C. $3,566
D. $5,350
Answer: A

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