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Exam Code: HP0-J15
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.2 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.3 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

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NO.4 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

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NO.5 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

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NO.6 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

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NO.7 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

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NO.8 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

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NO.9 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.10 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.11 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.12 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.13 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.14 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.15 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

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NO.16 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.17 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.18 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

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NO.19 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

HP   HP0-J15 answers real questions   HP0-J15   HP0-J15

NO.20 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J14
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A. bus driver
B. port filter driver
C. Secure Path driver
D. system state driver
E. disk driver replacement
F. matrix storage manager driver
Answer: ABE

HP   HP0-J14   HP0-J14

NO.2 What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A. snap pool
B. rollback pool
C. target volume
D. master volume
Answer: A

HP   HP0-J14   HP0-J14

NO.3 In which Windows mode are the MPIO drivers implemented?
A. real mode
B. user mode
C. kernel mode
D. secured mode
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (fc or i) controller at any
one time?
A. 3 monitor and 1 manage
B. 3 monitor and 2 manage
C. 5 monitor and 1 manage
D. 5 monitor and 2 manage
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which resource can you use to identify supported switch and HBA firmware releases in an MSA2012fc
storage environment?
A. MSA2012fc website
B. MSA2012fc Streams
C. MSA2012fc User Guide
D. MSA2012fc Quick Specs
E. MSA2012fc Best Practices
Answer: B

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NO.6 When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback
process?
A. immediately
B. after a restart of the application
C. when the rollback process has completed
D. while the rollback process completes in the background
Answer: D

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NO.7 You want an HP product that allows you to present 4.8TB to an OpenVMS system and take up only 2U
of rack space. Which HP StorageWorks product should you use?
A. HP StorageWorks MSA60
B. HP StorageWorks MSA70
C. HP StorageWorks MSA500
D. HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: ACE

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NO.9 What is the impact of dequarantining a virtual disk if not enough of its drives are available to maintain
the selected RAID level?
A. The virtual disk RAID level is reduced.
B. The virtual disk stays in quarantine until disks are added.
C. The virtual disk goes critical and the sparing routine is called.
D. The virtual disk goes offline and its data cannot be recovered.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities >
Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management
Utility. What do you select next?
A. Next
B. Master Controller
C. IP Address option
D. previously saved configuration file
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J25
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks AIS 2008 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 How do you acquire management access to fabric switches?
A. through the FCIP link
B. by using SmartStart EVA
C. by using a Telnet connection
D. through Command View EVA
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve
the I/O performance?
A. write-back cache mode (WBCM)
B. write-through cache mode (WTCM)
C. super-sequential cache mode (SSCM)
D. independent cache performance mode (ICPM)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which controller components of an EVA4400 are customer replaceable?
A. only cache batteries
B. the entire shelf as one unit
C. all components that are available as spare parts
D. all components you can replace without opening the shelf
Answer: C

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NO.4 On an EVA, which event log file is used to log disk shelf events?
A. Controller Event log file
B. Hardware Event log file
C. Storage Cell Event log file
D. Management Event log file
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are starting Command View EVA by using the SmartStart EVA CD to manage a storage
system. Which statement is correct?
A. You must enable the Advanced mode in SmartStart EVA and right-click on the storage system icon.
B. You must specify the IP address of the management server and select the storage system to
manage within Command View EVA.
C. You must specify only the name of the storage system; SmartStart EVA will automatically locate
and start Command View EVA for this system.
D. You must start Command View EVA from the SmartStart EVA CD without installation and select
the storage system to manage within Command View EVA.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What can you use to display performance data provided by the EVA?
A. SIM
B. SSSU.exe
C. Command View EVA
D. performance monitor of the Microsoft Windows operating system
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 When you add disks to a disk group on an EVA4400, what is a best practice to maintain
redundancy to multiple disk failures?
A. multiples of 2
B. multiples of 6
C. multiples of 8
D. multiples of the number of disk shelves
Answer: C

HP answers real questions   HP0-J25 demo   HP0-J25

NO.9 Which critical events does the Device Specific Module (DSM) impact? (Select three.)
A. error handling
B. bus initialization
C. request handling
D. device initialization
E. OS kernel interface
F. plug and play interface
Answer: A,C,D

HP   HP0-J25   HP0-J25

NO.10 On an EVA4400, what is a requirement for a fully allocated snapshot in relation to its source?
A. It must be located in the same disk group.
B. It must be located in a different disk group.
C. It must be assigned to a higher redundancy level.
D. It must be assigned to the same redundancy level.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J24
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 You are required to cascade 2 units of HP B-Series 8Gb/s SAN switches using a 50/125 micron LC-LC
fiber optic cable. The remote SAN switch is connected to an MSL Tape Library. What is the maximum
cable length possible?
A.21 meters
B.150 meters
C.300 meters
D.500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which elements form the backup and restore basics? (Select four.)
A.backup strategies
B.tape rotation scheme
C.journal replication
D.agents selection
E.type of data to backup
F.remote replication
G.correct tape devices
Answer: ABEG

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NO.3 What is the benefit of having an SDLT tape drive that uses a linear recording technology where the tape
media is moved past the stationary read/write heads?
A.Data stripes that are recorded in vertical format over constant tape media speed provide reliable
recording.
B.Higher data density is recorded in the media in diagonal stripes format.
C.It is more reliable due to fewer moving parts and longer lifespan for the tape media.
D.A single media roller provides better tape tension during reading or writing.
Answer: C

HP   HP0-J24   HP0-J24

NO.4 What are advantages of using HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems over traditional backup that
uses tape media? (Select two.)
A.It provides data protection.
B.It is a scalable Enterprise SAN solution.
C.It enables non-disruptive scalability using Capacity on Demand.
D.It is the safest way to store data for the long term.
E.It provides online access to backup data.
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Given the following third-party copy sequence:
Step 1 Server initiates backup by sending list of blocks to be backed up to the third-party device.
Step 2 Third-party device issues commands to the external disk subsystem.
Step 3
Step 4External disk subsystem sends data to tape library.
Which action is taken in Step 3?
A.Fibre Channel loop performs LIP.
B.Server IP address is changed.
C.Snapshot is taken.
D.Server backup agent is stopped.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two-stage backup configuration would you recommend to SMB customers who want a solution
that is easy to install and manage?
A.Mezzanine Backup Solution
B.VLS1000i with MSL2024 Tape Libraries
C.MSA2000fc with MSL2048 Tape Libraries
D.D2D Backup System
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a benefit of a disk-to-disk-to-tape backup configuration in an Enterprise Backup Solution?
A.The backup data are copied to a host-managed, low-cost disk to facilitate restores and enable short
term archival storage.
B.Because the speed of staging disks is much higher than the tape speed, the window for
disk-to-disk-to-tape backup shrinks dramatically.
C.All file transfers are controlled by the storage system software, and transfer to tape occurs through
servers that send the data.
D.The backup application backs up the primary disk data to the staging disk, allowing for quick restores of
single files.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given a drive with the following features:
optical servo tracking
magneto-resistive cluster heads
fewer roller guides than previous generation drive
Which type of drive correctly matches the description?
A.AIT
B.DAT
C.SDLT
D.LTO
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given the following backup tape rotation scheme:
Incremental backup daily from Monday to Friday using 1 tape
Full backup every Saturday using 1 tape
Tape rotation rule: GFS scheme
Tape retention rule: Son tape overwrites weekly; Father tape only used every Saturday
A month is calculated as 5 Saturdays.
How many tapes are required to run one month of backups?
A.6
B.11
C.12
D.15
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which HP StorageWorks systems can use zero downtime backup technology and remote replications
solutions? (Select two.)
A.VLS Series
B.EML Series
C.XP Series
D.MSA2000 Series
E.EVA Series
Answer: CE

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Exam Code: HP0-Y17
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Which configuration step will enable a ProCurve Radio Port to obtain the IP address of a Wireless
Module during Layer 3 adoption?
A. Configure DHCP Relay on the Wireless Module.
B. Define the Wireless Module as a RADIUS client in Windows IAS.
C. Define Option 189 on the DHCP server for the scope serving the RP.
D. Configure IP helper on the RP's default gateway to forward requests to the Wireless Module's DHCP
server.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You must configure an ACL on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module, and attach the ACL to VLAN 55.
This VLAN is associated with the Marketing WLAN on the module and does not exist on any other
infrastructure device in the customer network. When will traffic be filtered by this ACL?
A. when it arrives on VLAN 55 from a wireless client
B. only when it is forwarded from the module downlink to the module uplink
C. when it arrives from the wired network and is forwarded to VLAN 55 hosts
D. when it is routed from VLAN 55 to another VLAN configured on the module
Answer: D

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NO.3 You must configure Identity Driven Manager to control access for five user groups to a file server at a
customer site. Which IDM object must be configured to enable you to identify this server in Access Rules?
A. Location
B. Access Policy
C. Access Profile
D. Network Resource
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which option is provided by the advanced customization feature for Web-Auth pages on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. the ability to customize logos and text on Web-Auth pages
B. the ability to use Web-Auth pages stored on an external web server
C. the ability to install and use customized Web-Auth pages on the module
D. the ability to display different Web-Auth pages for failed and successful authentication
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is an advantage of implementing Layer 3 routing instead of Layer 2 forwarding on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. It enables termination of user VLANs at the network edge.
B. It enables wireless users to have different access than wired users.
C. It enables the application of different security policies for wired and wireless users.
D. It enables communication between wireless users without using resources of the switch hosting the
module.
Answer: A

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NO.6 At a customer site, you have enabled and activated 802.1X authentication for ports 1-4 on a Switch
3500yl. VLAN membership of the ports is at default settings. Users connecting to the switch will
authenticate using Windows IAS and be assigned to VLANs based on policies applied by Identity Driven
Manager. You enter the following command:
3500.l(config)#aaa port-access authenticator ethernet 1-4 unauth-vid 33
What is the VLAN membership of these ports while no clients are connected?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 33
C. VLAN assigned by IDM
D. VLAN assigned by RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.7 At a customer site, you have enabled routing on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module installed in a
5406zl switch. Under what circumstance is configuration of a default route on the module unnecessary?
A. when the 5406zl is the only router adjacent to the Wireless Module
B. when RIP is configured on the router upstream from the Wireless Module
C. when VLANs configured on the Wireless Module also are configured on other routers
D. when a default gateway has already been defined on the Wireless Module to enable Layer 2
connectivity
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which feature of the Wireless Edge Services zl Module enables the reporting of excessive
authentication attempts?
A. AP detection
B. built-in firewall
C. Access Control Lists
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: D

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NO.9 The management interface for the IDS on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module reports that the
configured threshold for excessive association attempts by a station is set to 0. What does this indicate?
A. The IDS has not detected any events of this type.
B. The IDS is not scanning for this type of event.
C. No RPs have been configured for intrusion detection.
D. No users are associated with WLANs configured for intrusion detection.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a difference between the Web-Auth features on the AP 530 and the Wireless Edge Services zl
Module?
A. The AP 530 does not support 802.1X for Web-Auth clients.
B. The AP 530 does not support WPA encryption for Web-Auth clients.
C. The AP 530 does not support customization of text on the Login page.
D. The AP 530 does not enable the loading of custom web pages from external servers.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is an advantage of using the Wireless Module instead of the AP 530 to detect rogue APs?
A. The Wireless Module supports passive scanning as well as dedicated scanning.
B. The Wireless Module can be configured to require APs to submit 802.1X credentials.
C. The Wireless Module provides an administrative interface for identifying authorized and unauthorized
APs.
D. The Wireless Module's built-in firewall prevents users associated with unauthorized APs from
accessing network resources.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In Identity Driven Manager, what is the default setting for access control based on time of connection?
A. Access is allowed at all times.
B. Access is not permitted at any time.
C. Access is permitted during normal business hours.
D. Access is permitted at times configured during installation.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You must configure a Wireless Edge Services zl Module so that clients will be subject to router-based
ACLs based on IP address range. Which module feature enables you to support this strategy?
A. DHCP relay
B. Layer 3 mobility
C. built-in RADIUS server
D. dynamic VLAN assignment
Answer: D

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NO.14 At a customer site, you must configure three ports on a Switch 2610-24-PWR to authenticate users as
part of a unified wired and wireless solution that will use Identity Driven Manager to apply access policies.
Which device's IP address do you require for this configuration?
A. RADIUS server
B. PCM+/IDM server
C. Certification Authority
D. Windows Domain Controller
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have configured 802.1X authentication for four ports on a Switch 2600-8-PWR. One of the ports is
connected to an AP 530 in a conference room at a customer site. To ensure users connecting through
both devices have the same access rights, you have added the switch ports to an IDM Location that
already includes the AP 530. During a test, users connecting to the AP 530 are assigned to the correct
Access Policy. Users connecting through the switch ports receive the Default Access Policy. How can you
correct this configuration?
A. Edit the Location to support 802.1X over wired devices.
B. Add the switch and the AP 530 to the same group in Mobility Manager.
C. Configure 802.1X authentication on the switch port connected to the AP.
D. Set the WLAN parameter to ANY in the IDM Access Rule for the users.
Answer: D

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NO.16 When is the intrusion detection capability enabled on the Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. when routing is enabled
B. when the module is installed
C. when the first WLAN is enabled
D. when the built-in firewall is enabled
Answer: B

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NO.17 At a customer site, you must configure a Switch 5400zl and Identity Driven Manager to authenticate
Sales users and place them in VLAN 48. Which steps are necessary to complete this configuration?
(Select three.)
A. Configure VLAN 48 on the Switch 5400zl.
B. Enable 802.1X authentication for all affected switch ports.
C. Assign all affected switch ports to VLAN 48 as tagged members.
D. Define VLAN 48 as the unauthorized VID for all affected switch ports.
E. Add all Sales users to the list of RADIUS clients on the authentication server.
F. Define an IDM Access Profile and Access Rule associating Sales users with VLAN 48.
Answer: ABF

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NO.18 What is an advantage of using Web-Auth, instead of 802.1X, for authentication of guests?
A. Web-Auth eliminates the need for data encryption.
B. Web-Auth places less load on enterprise RADIUS servers.
C. Web-Auth does not require the installation of supplicant software on client computers.
D. Web-Auth enables the authentication of devices that do not provide interfaces for users to enter
credentials.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the purpose of the Guest Login feature on the AP 530?
A. enable guests to use the built-in guest account for Web-Auth
B. enable guests to register as users during the log-in process
C. enable guests to obtain certificates necessary for 802.1X authentication
D. enable guests to obtain IP addresses local to the AP during authentication
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have configured AP detection on two Radio Ports connected to a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module. Which step is necessary to enable ProCurve Manager Plus with Mobility Manager to display
information about the detected APs?
A. Configure IP addresses on the RPs.
B. Configure SNMP traps on the Wireless Module.
C. Define a detection alert in the PCM+ Events viewer.
D. Add the RPs to a detection group in Mobility Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which ProCurve secure mobility solution requires the installation of a RADIUS agent on the enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. Access Point 530
B. Identity Driven Manager
C. ProCurve Mobility Manager
D. Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.22 At a customer site, you have configured a Guest WLAN on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module. The
WLAN will use Web-Auth to authenticate Guest users, who will be placed in VLAN 55. What other step is
required to enable this configuration?
A. Enable IP routing for all VLANs configured on the module.
B. Configure a static route to VLAN 55 on the enterprise's routers.
C. Configure an IP interface associated with VLAN 55 on the module.
D. Add the address of the VLAN 55 default gateway to the module's Allowed List.
Answer: C

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NO.23 What is the rule governing the number and type of ACLs that can be applied to a VLAN on a Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. The VLAN can support one IP ACL.
B. The VLAN can support one IP ACL or one MAC ACL.
C. The VLAN can support one IP ACL and one MAC ACL.
D. The VLAN can support all ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: A

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NO.24 On the Wireless Edge Services zl Module, which interfaces can be associated with a single IP ACL?
A. all VLAN interfaces and the downlink
B. all VLAN interfaces, the downlink, and the uplink
C. one VLAN interface, the downlink, and the uplink
D. all VLAN interfaces and either the downlink or the uplink
Answer: B

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NO.25 What is an advantage of configuring a ProCurve Radio Port for passive scanning instead of dedicated
scanning for rogue AP detection?
A. The RP can continue serving clients while scanning.
B. The RP can be assigned to a Quarantine VLAN in PCM+.
C. The RP can be configured to scan selected radio frequencies.
D. The RP can send SNMP traps to PCM+ when rogue APs are detected.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which statement describes the relationship between Identity Driven Manager and an enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. IDM acts as a graphical interface for the configuration of RADIUS policies.
B. IDM provides a RADIUS proxy server for users affected by IDM Access Rules.
C. IDM applies the RADIUS server's Remote Access Policies to authenticated users.
D. IDM enables the RADIUS server to specify VLAN assignments for authenticated users.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which secure mobility features are available on a standalone AP 530? (Select two.)
A. Web-Auth
B. built-in firewall
C. built-in RADIUS
D. VLAN-based ACLs
E. user-based policies
Answer: AC

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NO.28 By default, which port or ports become members of VLAN 2100 when a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module is installed in a 5406zl switch?
A. Wireless Module uplink port
B. ports where PoE is enabled
C. Wireless Module downlink port
D. ports connected to PoE switches
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which circumstance requires Layer 3 adoption of a radio port by a Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. The RP must be part of a Layer 3 mobility domain.
B. The RP is located in a different broadcast domain than the module's downlink.
C. The RP must support users who will be assigned IP addresses in different networks.
D. The RP must obtain an IP address for enforcement of ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: B

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NO.30 When routing is enabled on a Wireless Module, which configuration is necessary on adjacent
enterprise routers?
A. a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP or OSPF
B. interfaces in all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
C. DHCP relay for all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
D. static routes to IP networks configured on the Wireless Module
Answer: D

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Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve Sales Professional)
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Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 All devices in a Local Area Network (LAN) are _______.
A. in the same broadcast domain
B. in separate transmission systems
C. connected by telephone lines
D.connected to a router
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which cable is most widely used for making network connections to the desktop today?
A.Thicknet
B. Fiber
C.Twisted pair
D.Thinnet
Answer: C

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NO.3 This layer defines local hardware addresses and may use Ethernet to provide this
function.
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Layer 4
Answer: B

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NO.4 What isTCP/IP?
A.the ability to provide both electrical power and network connectivity over the same
wire
B.the most common communication protocol
C. the implementation of Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model
D.a network transceiver/converter
Answer: B

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NO.5 The original IEEE standard for Wireless LANswas802.11b.What is the only new
standard that is backwards compatible with 802.11b?
A.802.11a
B. 802.11i
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: A

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Exam Name: HP (Assessing Web Application Security )
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Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which tool will you use to create a filter that can help identify every instance of a 302 redirection while
browsing the web application?
A.Web Proxy
B.SQL Injector
C.HTTP Injector
D.Web Browser
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which regular expression best matches the string 345-12-9876?
A.\d
B.\d*.$
C.\d{3-2-4}
D.\d{3}-\d{2}-\d{4}
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which statement best describes SmartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate is the process that delivers WebInspect Messages to the bottom of the Home tab.
B.SmartUpdate is the feature that sends False Positives (FP) to the HP Support team as quality feedback.
C.SmartUpdate is a process that retrieves updates to the local vulnerability database and any
WebInspect binary updates.
D.SmartUpdate automatically omits security checks whose specified server/application type does not
match the current targets server/application fingerprint.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which option best describes a Manual Crawl (Step Mode) scan?
A.This scan spiders the website, discovering all links and pages therein.
B.This scan forces the user to provide all of the site pages by hand via their browser while the audit
performs attacks.
C.This scan discovers links/pages while attacking the same pages, running with multiple threads. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
D.This scan fully discovers the site structure first, followed by a phase of attacks of the same pages. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
Answer:B

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NO.5 How do you initiate the WebInspect Command Line?
A.via the wi.exe program
B.via the WebInspect toolkit
C.via the scheduler.exe program
D.via the Advanced Assessment panel
Answer:A

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NO.6 In the WebInspect GUI, where can you find a full description of a discovered vulnerability?
A.within the Host info
B.within the Session info
C.within the Summary pane
D.within the Compliance Manager
Answer:B

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NO.7 What is a logout signature?
A.a snapshot of the session state found when the user has lost session state
B.a regular expression used to identify those responses that indicate session state has been lost
C.the toolbar feature in Web Macro Recorder which automatically determines the macros regular
expression
D.a user-supplied keyword that will be inserted into the WebInspect scan data to indicate each response
where a logout occurred
Answer:B

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NO.8 Click the Task button. Match the tools listed in the blue boxes beside the correct purpose. When
finished, click the Done button to submit your answer. Answer & Explanation Correct Answer
Explanations No more information available
Answer:

NO.9 Which policy focuses on auditing the functionality of the Web Application only?
A.Standard policy
B.Application policy
C.Web Service policy
D.Web Application policy
Answer:B

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NO.10 How do you promote vulnerabilities into defect tracking in Quality Center?
A.Use AMP integration.
B.Use the WebInspect Command Line utility.
C.Click the Quality Center icon on the toolbar.
D.Right-click the vulnerability in the Vulnerability Pane.
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which statement best describes the Request Retry Count function?
A.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait for a response.
B.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait before re-requesting the same, non-responsive
page.
C.The Request Retry Count indicates how many times to attempt a request before marking it as a null
response.
D.The Request Retry Count indicates how much time WebInspect will spend on a request before marking
the requested page as a null response.
Answer:C

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NO.12 Which is a valid option for Log File Purge settings under Application Settings?
A.Purge When Exit
B.By Total Scan Size
C.By Log File Number
D.Purge on SmartUpdate
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which tool is used to create and edit the Web Form Values file?
A.HTML Editor
B.HTTP Editor
C.Web Form Editor
D.WebInspect Form Wizard
Answer:C

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NO.14 What are some uses of regular expressions in WebInspect? Select two.
A.They are used for response filtering and may be customized.
B.They are used for filtering the vulnerabilities in the Dashboard.
C.They are used for detecting the logout signature in a Login Macro.
D.They are used for defect reporting when WebInspect is linked to Quality Center.
E.They are used to group vulnerabilities in the Vulnerabilities tab in the Summary pane.
Answer:A C

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NO.15 Which statement best describes the role of the "Web Form Values" file?
A.The WebForm Values file is part of the standard policy.
B.The WebForm Values file is generated during a scan to capture test parameters used during the scan.
C.The WebForm Values file contains parameter names and provides static values to be submitted when
testing webforms.
D.The WebForm Values file is used to establish and maintain "state" with the application by monitoring
webform authentication methods.
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which macro option will play and then start the scan off at its last recorded session, and none of the
earlier sessions will be crawled and audited?
A.Start Macro
B.Login Macro
C.Logout Macro
D.Use macro for entry
Answer:D

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NO.17 By default, what are the three response codes that would halt a scan on the first request?
A.404, 407, 502
B.200, 302, 404
C.304, 302, 500
D.403, 404, 500
Answer:A

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NO.18 What are the Network Authentication techniques supported by WebInspect? (Select three.)
A.NTLM
B.Kerberos
C.htaccess
D.Cybersafe
E.HTTP Basic
F.Retinal Scan
Answer:A B E

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NO.19 After completing a Crawl-Only scan and clicking on the Audit button, which scan policy will be used?
A.the policy selected by the user on-screen
B.the policy listed in the Default Scan Settings
C.the policy specified in the Application Settings
D.the policy specified in the Current Scan Settings
Answer:A

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NO.20 What is the difference between a Login Macro and a Start Macro? Select two.
A.The Start Macro will run any time state needs to be re-established.
B.The Start Macro is used to populate the assessment with known URLs.
C.The Login Macro runs any time a page response matches its logout signature.
D.The Login Macro only runs once to gain session state at the beginning of the assessment.
E.The Start Macro is the Login Macro being forced to run once at the beginning of the assessment.
Answer:B C

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Exam Code: HP2-Q01
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Desktops, Workstations, and Notebooks)
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Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 .Prior to creating a set of recovery disks, using the HP Backup and Recovery Manager, a customer's.
A. The new hard drive will come with the OS already installed
B. HP can provide a set of recovery disks
C. Use the recovery media created on another PC of the same model
D. Use the recover OS option within the BIOS
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 .Your customer's computer reboots with no warning. What should you try first to help isolate this?
(Select two)
A. Replace the system board and test
B. Remove any third party hardware
C. Check system event log
D. Restore the unit and reinstall
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 .Where can the embedded SATA RAID be configured on desktops and workstations?
A. with controller configuration software
B. in the embedded controller BIOS
C. in the system BIOS
D. F12 RAID configuration
Answer: C

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NO.4 .What is an adequate ESD precaution?
A. Touch a metallic portion of the case to establish ground
B. Plug the computer into a power outlet
C. Put on a grounded wrist strap
D. Carry electronic parts in a plastic bag
Answer: C

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NO.5 .Where would you confirm a spare part number?
A. HP PartSurfer
B. device manager
C. HP parts library
D. Windows Control Panel
Answer: A

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NO.6 .Which devices can be used in the external USB port? (Select two)
A. PCI card
B. monitor
C. CD/DVD
D. hard disk
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 .What can you do with a MultiBay hard disk drive?
A. Increase the size of the existing hard disk drive
B. Attach a SCSI drive
C. Install an additional hard disk drive
D. Daisy chain multiple hard disk drives
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Your customer is trying to configure extended monitor support across two monitors and ******
A. OSD settings
B. Display BIOS
C. display proprieties
D. system BIOS
Answer: C

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NO.9 .Your customer is having problems after installing memory in their computer. What should they do?
A. DPS test
B. Event Viewer
C. Device Manager
D. Task Manager
Answer: A

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NO.10 .After creating an OS Restore CD with Backup and Recovery Manager, you are unable to create an
OS Restore ISO image
A. The OS must be validated and regenerated by calling HP
B. Once a set of Recovery Media iscreated, the OS vendor must provide an ISO code
C. Once a set of Recovery Media is created, you can no longer create ISO image
D. The OS must be validated and regenerated on HP web site
Answer: C

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NO.11 .You upgrade the BIOS to the current version. Customers logs in and discover that a specific software
application does not work.
A. Downgrade the BIOS to the previous version
B. Contact HP for a replacement system board
C. Contact HP for a replace BIOS chip
D. Upgrade the affected software application
Answer: A

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NO.12 .Your customer is experiencing intermittent lockups on a computer kept inside. What is most likely
cause?
A. vibration
B. temperature
C. ESD
D. altitude
Answer: B

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NO.13 .Your customer indicates that Windows in not recognizing their MultiBay hard disk drive. What can be
done first to isolate this problem?
A. Set the MultiBay hard disk drive as a slave
B. Reinstal the factory image
C. MultiBay is not an HP supported configuration
D. Reseat the MultiBay hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.14 .The operating system doesn't load. What is the first step you should take to determine if a third-party
component is related to the problem?
A. Replace the third party component
B. Remove the third party component
C. Call the third party vendor's support line
D. Update the component drivers/software
Answer: B

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NO.15 .Windows XP computer stops responding during startup. How could you isolate the cause with
minimal impact to the customer?
A. Replace the hard drive
B. Restore the factory image
C. Examine the win.ini file
D. Enable boot logging
Answer: D

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NO.16 .What is the primary benefit of HP 3D DriveGuard?
A. it protects hard drive from moisture damage
B. it detects sudden motion and temporarily stops hard disk
C. it encrypts the hard disk drive data
D. it enhances Windows Aero security performance
Answer: B

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NO.17 .Your customer complains about a short battery life on their notebook. What do you do first?
A. Fully drain and charge the battery
B. Tell them to use power only
C. Replace the battery
D. Order a high capacity battery
Answer: A

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NO.18 .What tool do you use to test ESD equipment?
A. volt meter
B. osciloscope
C. ohm meter
D. amp meter
Answer: C

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NO.19 .You are performing a service call to replace a failed hard disk drive in a factory. Water form the
factory's manufacturing process has cover the hard disk drive. How does this environmental condition
affect the system warranty?
A. The warranty does not cover damage due to environmental conditions
B. An accidental damage warranty must be purchase after damage occurs
C. The warranty is unaffected by environmental issues
D. Environmental issues void warranty of diskette drives, mice and keyboards only
Answer: A

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NO.20 .When a processor display a temperature warning, what do you do first?
A. Replace the cache
B. Reseat the processor
C. Check the environment
D. Install a new processor fan
Answer: C

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