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Exam Code: BH0-002
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN PROGRAMME/PROJECT SUPPORT)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. "The design
authority is responsible for?"
A.Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B.The programme
C.Business integrity within the programme
D.Technical integrity across projects
Answer:D

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NO.2 What is product based planning?
A.A technique that marketing departments use to launch new products and services.
B.A technique that seeks to identify tasks and activities
C.A technique that monitors the progress of the project
D.A technique that concentrates on the identification and definition of what the project is to deliver
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a Project Initiation Document / Terms of
Reference?
A.Detailed Analysis
B.Timescales
C.Risks
D.Objectives
Answer:A

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NO.4 The Internal Rate of Return is:
A.The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B.The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C.The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D.The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer:D

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NO.5 End Project Reviews should be used to:
A.Identify who was responsible for any failures
B.Consider support requirements
C.Capture lessons learned for future projects of a similar nature
D.Agree when the project team can be released for other work
Answer:C

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Exam Code: ISEB-PM1
Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Project Management)
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Total Q&A: 625 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
Answer: A

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NO.4 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.8 While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your
chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C

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NO.10 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the
situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
Answer: A

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NO.15 The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What
is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A

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NO.16 A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
Answer: C

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NO.17 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.18 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project
charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status. How would you define this situation.?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: FCGIT
Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 You are monitoring energy usage in the data centre. Which of the following techniques can you use?
a) Data aggregating.
b) Thermal profiling.
c) CPU throttling.
d) Server metering.
A. a and c only.
B. b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. a and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can you use a Continual Service Improvement Model as part of your green IT programme?
A. To ensure on-going monitoring and feedback through the programme lifecycle.
B. To ensure adequate technical support throughout the programme lifecycle.
C. To ensure agile application development to support the programme lifecycle.
D. To ensure senior management commitment throughout the programme lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which units are the results of a Carbon Footprint Calculation displayed?
A. Dollars.
B. Kilowatts.
C. Tonnes.
D. Litres.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of these is NOT an example of a Carbon Offsetting scheme?
A. Supplying new solar cookers in Indonesia.
B. Providing new for old car tyres in the United Kingdom.
C. Generating hydropower without dams in Fiji.
D. Making electricity from landfill in South Africa.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is the greatest business challenge facing data centres?
A. The shortened technology refresh cycles of suppliers.
B. The cost of next generation blade servers.
C. The ability to manage all data centres centrally.
D. The increase in data storage requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following actions make a PC more energy efficient?
A. Disabling stand-by settings.
B. Enabling active power management.
C. Enabling active screen savers.
D. Disabling CPU throttling features.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Carbon Footprint comprises of both direct and indirect emissions.
Which of the following is an indirect emission?
A. Travelling to the office.
B. Opening a spreadsheet.
C. Disposing of a server.
D. Printing out a report.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is part of an organisation's direct Carbon Footprint?
A. Financial services.
B. Office refurbishment.
C. Corporate entertaining.
D. Business travel.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What action can you take to reduce the power consumption of your data centre?
A. Shut down servers out of business hours.
B. Replace small servers with larger ones.
C. Reallocate under-used servers to run active services.
D. Upgrade servers to always run the latest software.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A Green IT policy should be aligned to which other organizational policy?
a) Performance Management Policy.
b) Sustainability Policy.
c) Equal Opportunities Policy.
d) Environmental Policy.
A. b and d only.
B. a, b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. b, c and d only.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the first step that an organisation should take to improve its Green IT credentials?
A. Rationalise its Data Centre.
B. Review competitors' green policies.
C. Establish its Green IT policy.
D. Replace its old PCs.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following must be measured when calculating the annual energy consumption of a
server?
A. How long the server takes to shut down and reboot.
B. The amount of times the system is upgrading in a year.
C. The energy consumed in different modes of operation.
D. The operating temperature of the server during peak loads.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which document should be created to ensure the implementation of your Green IT policy?
A. The green development plan.
B. The green procurement policy.
C. The green IT action plan.
D. The green building plan.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What should be achieved when setting the scope of an organisation's Green IT Policy.?
A. A definition of what goals are required for the project.
B. A definition of what resources are required for the project.
C. A definition of what people are required for the project.
D. A definition of what activities are required for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.18 How much energy is used by monitor when displaying a PC screen saver?
A. The same as a standard office application.
B. Half the power of a standard office application.
C. One third the power of a standard office application.
D. Twice the power of a standard office application.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following are reasons that Home Working can reduce your carbon footprint?
a) It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
b) It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
c) It reduces the space needed within the office.
d) It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
A. b and c only.
B. a and d only.
C. a and c only.
D. c and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following describes Carbon Neutrality?
A. Eliminating CO2 emissions from product manufacture.
B. Maintaining CO2 emissions at a pre-defined agreed level.
C. Balancing CO2 emissions with an equivalent offset amount.
D. Matching CO2 emissions between defined business areas.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BH0-002
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN PROGRAMME/PROJECT SUPPORT)
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Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a Project Initiation Document / Terms of
Reference?
A.Detailed Analysis
B.Timescales
C.Risks
D.Objectives
Answer:A

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NO.2 Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. "The design
authority is responsible for?"
A.Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B.The programme
C.Business integrity within the programme
D.Technical integrity across projects
Answer:D

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NO.3 What is product based planning?
A.A technique that marketing departments use to launch new products and services.
B.A technique that seeks to identify tasks and activities
C.A technique that monitors the progress of the project
D.A technique that concentrates on the identification and definition of what the project is to deliver
Answer:D

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NO.4 End Project Reviews should be used to:
A.Identify who was responsible for any failures
B.Consider support requirements
C.Capture lessons learned for future projects of a similar nature
D.Agree when the project team can be released for other work
Answer:C

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NO.5 The Internal Rate of Return is:
A.The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B.The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C.The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D.The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer:D

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Exam Code: ISEB-ITILV3F
Exam Name: ISEB (ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
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Total Q&A: 162 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged

NO.2 Control of user desk-top PCs

NO.3 Dashboard type technology
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

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2. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A. Application Management
B. Service Desk
C. Incident Management
D. Technical Management
Answer: C

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3. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change
Management?
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A

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4. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are?
A. Carried out by Service Operations
B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A. Technical Management
B. IT Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Applications Management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BH0-011
Exam Name: ISEB (BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.2 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.4 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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NO.5 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ISEB-ITILF
Exam Name: ISEB (The Foundation Examination - ITIL®)
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Total Q&A: 418 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-03

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NO.1 Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: C

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NO.2 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is a RACI model used for.?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

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NO.12 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.13 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.14 The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is
called the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.16 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.17 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.20 Exhibit: * Missing*
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN PROGRAMME/PROJECT SUPPORT)
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Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The Internal Rate of Return is:
A.The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B.The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C.The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D.The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer:D

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NO.2 End Project Reviews should be used to:
A.Identify who was responsible for any failures
B.Consider support requirements
C.Capture lessons learned for future projects of a similar nature
D.Agree when the project team can be released for other work
Answer:C

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NO.3 What is product based planning?
A.A technique that marketing departments use to launch new products and services.
B.A technique that seeks to identify tasks and activities
C.A technique that monitors the progress of the project
D.A technique that concentrates on the identification and definition of what the project is to deliver
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a Project Initiation Document / Terms of
Reference?
A.Detailed Analysis
B.Timescales
C.Risks
D.Objectives
Answer:A

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A.Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B.The programme
C.Business integrity within the programme
D.Technical integrity across projects
Answer:D

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Exam Code: ISEB-SWTINT1
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)
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Total Q&A: 43 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage.?
If width > lenth then
Biggest_diension = width
If height > width then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
Biggest_diension = length
If height>length
Then
Biggest_dimension = height
End_if
End_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Answer: A

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NO.3 As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT_001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
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A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BH0-006
Exam Name: ISEB (ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
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Total Q&A: 418 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-20

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NO.1 Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A.1 and 2 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 3 and 4 onlyWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A.Processes and functions
B.Maturity and cost
C.The end to end service
D.Infrastructure availability WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Provider Type?
A.Internal service provider
B.External service provider
C.Third-party provider
D.Shared services unit WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.4 Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A.Remediation Planning
B.Categorization
C.Prioritization
D.Review and Close WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.5 Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A.Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.Development, negotiation and agreement of organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.6 What would you use the seven Rs of Change Management for?
A.To assist with the impact analysis for a Change request
B.To review changes after they have been implemented
C.To allocate the roles and responsibilities during the Change Management process
D.To act as a framework for implementing a ChangeWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A.1 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.2 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.8 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.None of the above WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.10 Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A.Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B.Supplier Management and Demand Management
C.Demand Management and Service Level Management
D.Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.11 What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.12 "Service Management is a set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.13 In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned
by which set of activities?
A.Baseline assessments
B.Service and process improvements
C.Taking measurements and recording metrics
D.Setting measurement targetsWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.14 A change process model should include:
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined,
including handling issues and unexpected events
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1 and 2 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.15 Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?
A.Components
B.Processes
C.The end to end service
D.Customer satisfactionWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.16 What does a service always deliver to customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.17 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service CatalogueWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.18 Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and
Partners"?
A.Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B.Customers
C.Internal departments
D.The Facilities Management function WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.19 Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?
A.Act
B.Plan
C.Do
D.Coordinate WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.20 The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Service Strategy
C.Service Design
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.21 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A.Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C.They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D.They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.22 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have
met their targets?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Business Relationship Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Availability ManagementWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.23 A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A.Yes
B.No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C.No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D.No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problemWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.24 The BEST definition of an Incident is:
A.An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service
C.Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.25 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.26 Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A.Measurement, methods and metrics
B.Service Design Package
C.Service Portfolio Design
D.Process definitions WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.27 Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A.All of the above
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.28 Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of
all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Catalogue Management
C.Demand Management
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.29 Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A.An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
B.A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
C.An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
D.Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reportedWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.30 Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A.Service Design: Design the processes
B.Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service Operation: IT Operations Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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