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Exam Code: JN0-120
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.e(jncia-e))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-26

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NO.1 Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router? (Choose
two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 You would like to install an OC-48c line module in an ERX 1440 Edge Router. Which slots can support
this configuration?
A. 0 and 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 Given the following router output, which configuration file will the router use at its next reload?
A. config
B. clientqos.cnf
C. startup-config
D. running-configuration
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which protocol is used to transfer files to on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose two.)
A. SCP
B. FTP
C. RCP
D. TFTP
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Where should you install the spare line module in a redundancy group?
A. last slot in the chassis
B. first slot in the chassis
C. lowest numbered slot in the group
D. highest numbered slot in the group
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which service does the ERX Edge Router support with a virtual router?
A. voice over IP
B. wholesale services
C. IP quality of service
D. SNMP management
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are two ways that IP datagrams are passed from the ingress line module to the egress line
module? (Choose two.)
A. over an ATM PVC
B. over a FastEthernet bus
C. over a Gigabit Ethernet bus
D. over high speed serial bus
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 You would like to configure your PC's IP address of 10.10.0.156 as an FTP host with a username of
user and a password of mypass. Which configuration command accomplishes this goal.?
A. host userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
B. host userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass
C. hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
D. hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass
Answer: A

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NO.11 How are the slot groups arranged in the ERX 700 Series Edge Router?
A. Group 1 - Slots 0 &1 Group 2 - Slot 2 Group 3 - Slot 3 Group 4 - Slot 4
B. Group 1 - Slots 2 & 3 Group 2 - Slot 4 Group 3 - Slot 5 Group 4 - Slot 6
C. Group 1 - Slot 2 Group 2 - Slot 3 Group 3 - Slot 4 Group 4 - Slot 5 & 6
D. Group 1 - Slot 3 Group 2 - Slot 4 Group 3 - Slot 5 Group 4 - Slots 6 & 7
Answer: B

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NO.12 In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to advertise
customer networks into the provider's IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces in 5
virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
Answer: A

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NO.15 You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0. The PVC
should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format. Which command
accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 What does the SRP distribute to the line modules when a routing table changes?
A. updated RIB-Out
B. link-state information
C. an incremental update
D. the complete routing table
Answer: D

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NO.18 By default, how does the router handle changes to its operational configuration?
A. Changes are not implemented, but are saved automatically.
B. Changes are not implemented and must be written into memory.
C. Changes are implemented immediately and saved automatically.
D. Changes are implemented immediately, but must be written into memory.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
Answer: A

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NO.20 A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a large
subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-130
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-26

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NO.1 In a Bridged 1483 network, which set of commands is used to configure an ATM subinterface?
A. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip address unnumbered loopback0
B. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip unnumbered loopback0
C. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip address unnumbered loopback0
D. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip unnumbered loopback0
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which CLI command is used to set a Privileged Exec password of mypassword?
A. enable password 0 mypassword
B. enable password 3 mypassword
C. enable password 5 mypassword
D. enable password 10 mypassword
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three statements about Label-Switched Paths (LSPs) are true? (Choose three.)
A. LSPs are bidirectional.
B. LSPs are unidirectional.
C. LSPs can be signaled by CAC.
D. LSPs can be configured explicitly.
E. LSPs can be configured dynamically.
Answer: BDE

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NO.4 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.5 Is the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process called Deterministic or Static and
why?
A. It is Static. If the priorities are equal for a new neighbor and the current DIS only.
B. It is Deterministic. If the well-known pseudonode and system ID is configured on the new neighbor only.
C. It is Deterministic. When a new router appears on a multi-access network with a higher priority value, it
is elected as the DIS.
D. It is Static. When a new intermediate system powers up on a multi-access network, even if it has a
higher priority, it may become a backup DIS.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which CLI command displays the VRFs that are operational within each virtual router?
A. show vir
B. show ip vrf
C. show vrf vir
D. show mpls vrf
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which configuration command places interfaces whose IP addresses are between 192.168.0.0 and
192.168.255.255 into OSPF area 0?
A. network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.0.0.0
B. network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0.0.0.0
C. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
D. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three statements are true regarding the DHCP Internal Server? (Choose three.)
A. Can be in remote-access mode.
B. Can be in equal-access mode.
C. Can be in standalone mode.
D. Standalone mode is the default.
E. Equal-access mode is the default.
Answer: BCE

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NO.9 You would like to view all Fast Ethernet interfaces currently using VLAN tagging and the specific VLANs
each interface is using.
Which CLI command displays this information?
A. show fast interface
B. show vlan interface
C. show vlan subinterface
D. show fast interface vlan
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two services protect the ERX Edge Router from unauthorized CLI logins?
A. IPSec
B. SecureID
C. local passwords
D. default IP policy
E. RADIUS authentication
Answer: CE

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16. Your ERX Edge Router is constantly going to a boot## prompt.
What is the most likely cause for this condition?
A. bad SRP
B. low voltage
C. bad mid-plane
D. corrupted flash
Answer: D

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17. Which sequence of events describes the order used to restore normal router operation after
experiencing a corrupted flash?
A. initialize flash, reload, copy new system files from FTP server
B. reload, copy new system files from FTP server, initialize flash
C. initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server, reload
D. reload, initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server
Answer: C

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18. You are trying to recover from a corrupted flash.
Which configuration command configures an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 on the SRP management
interface when the ERX1400 router is at the boot## prompt?
A. ip address 192.168.1.1/24
B. ip address 192.168.1.1 subnetmask 24
C. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
Answer: C

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19. What describes the functionality of NTP when using multiple virtual routers?
A. All virtual routers can act as NTP clients and servers.
B. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client and a server.
C. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP server but all can be clients.
D. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client but all can be servers.
Answer: D

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20. Which configuration command is used to make the ERX Edge Router an NTP server?
A. set ntp-server
B. set ntp server
C. ntp-server enable
D. ntp server enable
Answer: D

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21. Which configuration command allows a virtual router to receive updates from a configured NTP
source?
A. ntp enable
B. enable ntp
C. set ntp-client
D. enable ntp-client
Answer: A

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22. Which configuration command is used to send debug level events to the console in real time?
A. log here severity debug
B. log destination console severity debug
C. log severity debug destination console
D. log realtime destination console severity debug
Answer: B

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23. Which command initiates a packet trace for all PPP packets on interface atm 6/1.33 ?
A. log filter debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
B. log severity debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
C. log filter debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
D. log severity debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
Answer: B

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24. Log messages are appearing very quickly on the console of your ERX Edge Router.
Which Privileged Exec command disables real-time console logging?
A. no log here
B. no log console
C. destination console severity 7
D. destination console logging off
Answer: A

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25. Which two configuration commands are required to direct debug level console logging to your current
ERX Edge Router Telnet session? (Choose two.)
A. log here
B. log telnet here
C. log destination console severity 7
D. log destination telnet severity debug
Answer: AC

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26. A log filter of log severity DEBUG pppPacket ATM 4/3.66 is configured within the category of
pppPacket.
Which configuration command removes this specific log filter?
A. no log severity pppPacket
B. no log severity debug pppPacket
C. no log severity pppPacket atm 4/3.66
D. no log severity debug pppPacket 4/3.66
Answer: C

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27. Which configuration command removes all log filters currently configured on the ERX Edge Router?
A. no log here
B. no log fields
C. no log filters
D. no log severity
Answer: C

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28. Which three statements describe macros on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose three.)
A. They prompt users for input.
B. They cannot prompt users for input.
C. They can be created on the router itself.
D. They are an embedded programming language.
E. They can be created on the user's workstation.
Answer: ADE

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29. Which command is used to execute a macro called setup.mac ?
A. macro setup
B. macro setup.mac
C. run macro setup
D. run macro setup.mac
Answer: B

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30. Which control expression must be the last line in all macros?
A. <# end #>
B. <# finish #>
C. <# endtmpl #>
D. <# terminate #>
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two BGP attributes are incorporated for loop prevention within an AS using a route reflection
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. AS Path
B. Next Hop
C. Cluster List
D. Originator ID
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which CLI command disconnects all subscribers on an ATM PVC?
A. clear port 4/3.99
B. logout port 4/3.99
C. clear subscriber port 4/3.99
D. logout subscriber port 4/3.99
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which message type is used to initiate an RSVP-TE label switched path?
A. path
B. resv
C. setup
D. session
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which CLI command displays the status of a PPP over Ethernet subinterface?
A. show pppoe interface
B. show ppp int state up
C. show ip interface brief
D. show pppoe subinterface
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two types of routes may be advertised via EBGP? (Choose two.)
A. Routes that do not originate in the local AS and are learned by OSPF.
B. Routes that originate on the local router and are advertised into OSPF.
C. Routes that are transiting the local router and are BGP learned routes.
D. Routes that originate on the local router and are injected using a route map.
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: JN0-201
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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NO.4 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.6 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.7 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.11 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.12 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.13 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.16 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.18 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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NO.19 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Juniper (FWV, Specailist(JNCIS-FWV))
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A. Phase 1 PFS
B. Phase 2 SHA
C. Phase 2 3-DES
D. Phase 2 DH key exchange
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which command will show address translation for sessions that have ended?
A. snoop
B. get session
C. get log traffic
D. get dbuf stream
Answer: C

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NO.4 To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 You have implemented a hub and spoke VPN. On the hub, there are two tunnel interfaces, one to
each spoke. Both tunnel interfaces are in the same zone.
Which two configuration options will control traffic between the spokes? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the common zone to block inter-zone traffic.
B. Configure the common zone to block intra-zone traffic.
C. Configure each tunnel interface to block intra-zone traffic.
D. Configure one of the tunnel interfaces in a different zone a set policies.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 You create a policy-based VPN, and select an address group for the source address.
What will be the source component of the proxy-id seen by the remote security gateway?
A. the default 0.0.0.0/0
B. the last member of the address group
C. the first member of the address group
D. the subnet that contains all addresses in the address group
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct regarding NHTB? (Choose two.)
A. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get nhtb.
B. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <tunnel interface>.
C. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <physical interface>.
D. NHTB is enabled automatically when multiple VPNs are bound to a single tunnel interface.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 What do you need to change in your VPN configuration to use certificates for authentication?
A. Replace the preshared key with the certificate name.
B. Select PFS in Phase 2, then select the certificate to be used.
C. Use a custom set of Phase 1 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
D. Use a custom set of Phase 2 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate will not become active.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. The devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

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NO.11 You have created a VPN to a dynamic peer.
Which two configured parameters must match? (Choose two.)
A. static side peer-id
B. dynamic side local-id
C. static side IP address
D. dynamic side IP address
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

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NO.13 What should you configure to insure an HA cable failure does not result in both devices attempting to
become master?
A. failover count
B. secondary path
C. monitor threshold
D. heartbeat threshold
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two statements regarding NHTB are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the hub.
B. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the spoke.
C. When configuring routing on a spoke device with one tunnel interface the route to the tunnel interface
does not require a routing gateway address.
D. When configuring routing on a hub device with one tunnel interface terminating multiple VPN spokes,
the route to the tunnel interface does not require a routing gateway address.
Answer: AC

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NO.15 Which item in a virtual system is shared by default?
A. trust zone in the trust-vr
B. trust zone in the untrust-vr
C. untrust zone in the trust-vr
D. untrust zone in the untrust-vr
Answer: C

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NO.16 How many tunnels would need to be created to build a full mesh between 10 VPN devices?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.17 Your ScreenOS device has come under a SYN flood attack. In the logs, which severity level would you
search to see this event?
A. Alert
B. Critical
C. Warning
D. Emergency
Answer: D

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs and has intra-zone blocking enabled on
the Evil zone.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B. The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C. The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D. The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E. The proxy-id is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.21 Which two statements are true regarding the use of dialup VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. They are initiated only by the remote host PC.
B. They can only be connected to the trust zone on a ScreenOS device.
C. They are configured so that the first IKE message will always have the SA proposal list.
D. They can be used as an alternative to connect remote users when a ScreenOS device has reached the
maximum number of LAN-to-LAN tunnels.
Answer: AC

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NO.22 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate has failed Phase 1 negotiations. The peer's certificate has
been rejected.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. One of the peering devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxy-id, SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C. hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the route-based VPN on the SSG 5 needs to configured to allow access only from your PC
to Server G. The SSG 550 is configured with a policy-based VPN from Server G to your PC's host
address.
Assume the gateways are static.
Which proxy-id must be configured?
A. Local: 10.0.0.5/24Remote: 20.0.0.5/24
B. Local: 10.0.0.5/32Remote: 20.0.0.5/32
C. Local: 1.1.1.250/32Remote: 4.4.4.250/32
D. Local: 1.1.1.250/24Remote: 4.4.4.250/24
Answer: B

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NO.25 What will happen if you type the command unset protocol vrouter trust-vr protocol ospf?
A. OSPF stops running, but the OSPF configuration is left intact.
B. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter only.
C. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from all interfaces in the vrouter.
D. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter and from all interfaces in the vrouter.
Answer: D

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NO.26 During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

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NO.28 What must be configured differently for a route-based VPN and a policy-based VPN?
A. proxy-id
B. proposals
C. remote gateway type
D. binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

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NO.29 You have configured the following on your device.
The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?
A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which three items do you need to download and install on your ScreenOS device for IKE gateways to
be able to use digital certificates without OCSP? (Choose three.)
A. the CRL list
B. the SCEP list
C. a local certificate
D. the CA public key certificate
E. the CA private key certificate
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: JN0-522
Exam Name: Juniper (FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be useful for troubleshooting a policy deny?
A.get flow debug
B.debug flow basic
C.exec flow analysis
D.debug session basic
Answer:B

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NO.2 Your VPN tunnel does not pass traffic. You run the get ike cookie command and discover that there is no
cookie. Which two should be verified? (Choose two.)
A.routes
B.Phase 1 configuration options
C.Phase 2 configuration options
D.selected quick mode encryption algorithms
Answer:A B

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NO.3 You want to minimize the number of IP addresses, subnets, and policies in use. How should you
configure your tunnel interface?
A.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 32 bit subnet mask.
B.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 30 bit subnet mask.
C.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered and place the interface in the same zone as the
designated interface.
D.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered, but place the tunnel interface in a different zone than the
designated interface.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which ScreenOS CLI policy statement keyword would enable a policy only during specified times, days,
and/or dates?
A.at
B.calendar
C.schedule
D.scheduler
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which ScreenOS CLI command is required to enable a policy during specified times, days, or dates?
A.set time
B.set clock
C.set calendar
D.set scheduler
Answer:D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct command to configure a default route on the
SSG 20?
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 vrouter untrust
B.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 gateway 143.45.56.254
C.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 next-hop 143.45.56.254
D.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface 143.45.56.1 gate 143.45.56.254
Answer:B

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NO.7 What needs to be configured in Phase 2 of a route-based VPN, that does not need to be configured in a
policy-based VPN?
A.proxy-id
B.tunnel-binding
C.transport mode
D.custom proposals
Answer:B

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NO.8 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer:A B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. Traffic from the Internet to the partner servers must use a VIP. In the exhibit,
what is true about the configuration of this feature?
A.You cannot use a VIP in this environment.
B.The VIP can be configured on the e0/4 interface.
C.The VIP can be configured in the Corporate or Internet zone using a different subnet than the physical
interface.
D.The VIP will work only if the destination ports in the incoming packet headers are mapped to the same
ports in the Corporate zone.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, if host A initiates a Web browsing session with host D, and the
E0/1 interface of the SSG 20 is in NAT mode, what will be the source address of the packet arriving at
host D?
A.10.1.1.1
B.10.1.10.5
C.143.45.56.1
D.143.45.56.254
Answer:C

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer:D

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NO.12 You enter the following command: set int e0/8 mip 1.1.8.32 host 10.1.10.32 netmask 255.255.255.255
How many MIP address translations have you just configured?
A.1
B.8
C.128
D.256
Answer:A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct address book entry for host C?
A.set address C 1.1.70.250/32
B.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250
C.set address Partner 1.1.70.250/32
D.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250/32
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which command can you use to view the log of IKE negotiations and results?
A.get event type 536
B.get ike cookie
C.get sa active
D.debug ike basic
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which statement is correct about tunnel interfaces?
A.They can have overlapping IP addresses.
B.They need to be configured in the zone where the protected resources reside.
C.They can be unnumbered and used in policy-based translations if the interface is in route mode.
D.They can be unnumbered from any interface residing on the same virtual router as the protected
resources.
Answer:D

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NO.16 Assuming factory default settings, which statement describes the minimum requirements for WebUI
management access to the SSG 5?
A.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet to any interface, open a browser and access
192.168.1.1.
B.Terminate the bootup sequence from the console device, open a browser on the console device and
access 192.168.1.1.
C.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet, to the highest numbered interface and open a
browser and access 192.168.1.1.
D.Using the CLI, define an IP address on a physical interface, connect a PC to the interface and open a
browser to the interface address.
Answer:C

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NO.17 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer:A

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which routing command would allow host A to communicate with
host C? (Note: Assume a route from the SSG 20 to host A's subnet already exists.)
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 int e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
B.set route 1.1.70.0 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
C.configure route 1.1.70.0/24 gateway 177.11.56.254 int e0/3
D.set route 1.1.70.0/24 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be used to view traffic logs?
A.get traffic
B.get log policy
C.get policy log
D.get log traffic
Answer:D

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated
the output shown? (Choose two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer:B C

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Exam Code: JN0-521
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-20

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NO.1 Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone.
What else should be completed to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management
PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client
connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?
A.set int eth3 manage web
B.set zone v1-dmz manage web
C.set int dmz zone manage web
D.set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web
Answer: B

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NO.3 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A.Check its route table.
B.Check its session table.
C.Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D.Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated the output shown? (Choose
two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer: BC

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the "Manage-IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.
C.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
D.It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated
prior to session establishment.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly
needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?
A.Execute exec config rollback.
B.Execute save config to last-known-good.
C.Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.
D.Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement accurately describes the "config rollback" feature?
A.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved
configuration file from flash.
B.The "config rollback" feature is enabled by default, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously
saved configuration file from flash.
C.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked
configuration file from a separate area in flash.
D.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS
image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When performing an image upgrade using the CLI, which three locations would be a source for this
image? (Choose three.)
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PC local disk
E.Compact Flash Card
Answer: BCE

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NO.9 A ScreenOS firewall is running in transparent mode. The firewall receives a packet which has no entry
in its forwarding table.
What will the firewall do?
A.Flood out all ports.
B.Check its route table for interzone destination.
C.Perform a policy lookup to determine the interfaces to which the source address is permitted, and flood
the packet out of those interfaces.
D.Perform a policy lookup to determine the zones to which the source address is permitted, and flood the
packet out the interfaces bound to those zones.
Answer: D

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NO.10 When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which
hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?
A.TFTP server
B.PC local disk
C.internal flash
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.11 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which command would you run to check IPSec Phase 1 active status?
A.get sa
B.get event 427
C.get sa active
D.get ike cookie
Answer: D

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NO.13 In the command, save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 abcd.cfg merge, which function does the merge
parameter specify?
A.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the configuration in RAM.
B.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the startup configuration file in internal flash.
C.The merge parameter is not valid for TFTP files, it is only valid for configuration files stored in internal
flash.
D.The config file from the TFTP server will be combined with the configuration file in RAM and the
combined result will be saved in internal flash.
Answer: D

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NO.14 An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data.
Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?
A.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
B.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to ram
C.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg merge
D.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
Answer: C

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NO.15 When changes are made to the running config during a WebUI management session, to what external
hardware component can the changes be saved?
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.PC local disk
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer: D

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NO.17 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than the first
in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A.The second packet causes an ARP query.
B.The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C.The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D.The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,
"Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway"
What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Answer: ADE

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?
A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?
A.source IP address translation
B.destination IP address translation
C.source IP and port address translation
D.destination IP and port address translation
Answer: C

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NO.21 You are configuring an interface in the untrust zone with an IP address, telnet enabled, and WebUI
management.
Which sequence of steps must be performed to make the interface operational at the end of the
configuration sequence?
A.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
B.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, accept default management services.
C.Assign the interface to a virtual router, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
D.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, define a manage IP address, accept default
management services.
Answer: A

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NO.22 By default, where are changes stored when a save command is issued from the CLI during a
management session?
A.NVRAM
B.internal flash
C.PCMCIA card
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.23 A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing
interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the
client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which ScreenOS WebUI button reorders policies?
A.Shift
B.Move
C.Reorder
D.Transfer
Answer: B

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NO.25 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer: A

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NO.26 What will change the root admin password?
A.set admin password
B.set root-admin password
C.set admin password
D.set admin user password
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which process describes how an addressed physical interface is moved into a Layer 2 zone?
A.Place the required interface into the VLAN zone.
B.Place the required interface into L2 zones such as V1-Trust, V1-Untrust
C.Remove the interface from the L3 zone such as Trust and place it into a L2 zone such as V1-Trust
D.Remove the address from the interface, remove the interface from the L3 zone, and then place
interface in the L2 zone.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and
all-privilege administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.29 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer: AB

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NO.30 Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B.Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C.It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D.You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an
Ethernet port.
Answer: AC

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