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Exam Code: C_BOE_30
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 239 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-15

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NO.1 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.9 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.14 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.17 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.19 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.20 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_ISR_60
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Retail with SAP ERP 6.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-15

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NO.1 Where is the supplementary calculation schema assigned?
A. Condition type
B. Calculation schema
C. Access sequence
D. Schema group
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are the IT scenarios powered by SAP NetWeaver Master Data
Management (MDM)?
A. SRM Master Data Management, SRM Master Data Consolidation, SRM Master Data
Harmonization
B. Central Master Data Management, Master Data Consolidation, Master Data Harmonization
C. ERP Master Data Management, ERP Master Data Consolidation, ERP Master Data Harmonization
D. Central Customer Master Data Integration, Customer Rich Product-Content Management, Master
Data Harmonization
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are the effects of a goods issue posting for an outbound delivery in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. The stock quantities are updated in the article master.
B. The value change is updated in the stock accounts in Financial Accounting (FI).
C. The status of the outbound delivery is updated in the document flow.
D. The pick quantity in the transfer order is updated.
E. The stock type Blocked stock changes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 You create a sales order for the wholesale distribution chain. In the pricing analysis you notice
that the customer discount you have just created has not been included.
Which of the following settings made in sales price determination in SAP Retail might be the cause
of this? (Choose two)
A. The determined pricing procedure does not contain the new condition type Customer discount.
B. The condition record for your new customer discount was created for the wrong distribution
chain.
C. A validity date has been defined in the access sequence that is assigned to the condition type
Customer discount.
D. The condition record for the customer discount is set as: cannot be changed manually.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 For which of the following key figures can you maintain plan data in a purchasing list in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. Stock transfer
B. Initial buy fix
C. Initial buy variable
D. Putaway
E. Allocation table
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which of the following needs to be considered when using the replenishment based inventory
management procedure?
A. Only the unrestricted-use stock type is monitored.
B. Documents are created for all goods movements.
C. Different stock types are monitored.
D. Documents are created for goods receipts only.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following functions are offered by replenishment planning in SAP Retail? (Choose
three)
A. Calculating requirements for merchandise category value-only articles.
B. Determining requirements for stores based on the stock situation.
C. Considering different customer stock types.
D. Analyzing customers' sales data and stock data.
E. Generating follow-on documents.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 Where in the Merchandise Category Hierarchy would you find a Reference Article?
A. Any Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level
B. Merchandise Category
C. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Top Level
D. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level and Merchandise Category
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following functions does the purchasing list offer? (Choose three)
A. Selecting characteristic values for a purchasing list item.
B. Entering planned quantities for seasonal articles per assortment.
C. Planning the number of styles of seasonal articles per vendor.
D. Planning new articles that do not yet have an article master record.
E. Creating prepacks and displays.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Which one of the following price determination elements must be configured so that certain
condition lines of a purchase order will appear on the print output?
A. Access sequence
B. Condition type
C. Calculation schema
D. Schema group
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-15

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NO.1 Which of the following elements belong to warehouse stock available for MRP in net requirement
calculation? (Choose three.)
A. Warehouse stock
B. On-order stock
C. Reorder point
D. Non-valuated goods receipt blocked stock
E. Fixed purchase requisitions
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.3 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase requisitions
with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements in requirements
planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of supply in the
source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item using
"Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor" indicator in
the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of material
group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to material group
4711
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is a prerequisite for transfer postings between two materials ("material to
material")?
A. The materials being transferred must have the same valuation class.
B. The materials being transferred must have the same material type.
C. The materials being transferred must have the same material group.
D. The materials being transferred must have the same base unit of measure.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You want to post a goods issue from stock in quality inspection. In which of the following cases is this
possible? (Choose two.)
A. Withdrawal for scrapping
B. Withdrawal for inspection sample
C. Withdrawal for a reservation
D. Withdrawal for a cost center
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In the future,
you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups, valuation
classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles to the
new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to the new
material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles to the
new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the advertising
articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.10 In which of the following cases is the goods receipt always posted as non-valuated?
A. Goods receipt for initial stock entry
B. Goods receipt to the stock of material provided to vendor
C. Goods receipt for a free-of-charge delivery
D. Goods receipt to the consignment stock
Answer: D

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NO.11 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing? (Choose two.)
A. The transactions in which a movement type can be used
B. The reversal movement types for a movement type
C. The quantity and value updates for postings with a movement type
D. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with a
movement type
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date and quantity.
To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.13 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization".?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.15 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
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Total Q&A: 239 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-18

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NO.1 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.7 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.16 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.17 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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Exam Code: C-TB1200-07
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 152 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-16

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NO.1 I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this
partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for
another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A. Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document
type, then select a quotation from another business partner.
B. Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'.
You can now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C. You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D. You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before
she can print the query results?
A. Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B. Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C. Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D. Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A. Conditions
B. Table entries
C. Field entries
D. Grouping
E. Sorting
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.4 Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what
their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number,
Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for
example). How can I create a "general" query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to
change the date in the "Where" condition area?
A. Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%0]' then save
the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B. Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the
system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C. Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL
'[%0]' then save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the
desired date.
D. Define a variable in the "Group By" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL
'[%3]' then save the query.
Answer: A

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NO.5 For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A. Stock entry.
B. Stock release.
C. Completion of a production order.
D. Purchase order submission.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.6 What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A. Payroll processing
B. Shift planning
C. Employee master data
D. Recording and evaluation of absences
E. Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.7 The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he
does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A. Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
B. Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
C. Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D. Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to
each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical
point. What is the easiest way of doing this?
A. In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level.
Wheneveremployees post a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an
email message to the purchasing manager.
B. In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the
predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls
below this threshold.
C. Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a
user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make
sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D. In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release StockBelow the Minimum Level'
indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the
purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer: C

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NO.9 I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of
my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A. When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field
name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B. When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System
information, the table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C. Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D. Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query,
after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A. With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B. With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C. With standard costvaluation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D. With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E. With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.11 A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager
wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries.
What would you recommend?
A. Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and
Deliveries as the base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B. Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all
deliveries for the relevant month.
C. Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and
Delivery as the target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D. Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target
document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer: A

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NO.12 The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A. Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B. To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C. The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D. Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E. A sales manager can use selection criteria in "My Open Opportunities Report" to view sales
opportunitesfor any of his direct reports.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.13 Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function.
After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the
report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A. No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the
matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B. No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in
the report.
C. Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the
repetitive area of the linked template.
D. Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update
the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer:
price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales
documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?
A. 1) Special prices for the customer
2) Discount groups linked to the business partner
3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner
4) The price list specified in the business partner master data
B. 1) Discount groups
2) Special prices for the customer
3) Period and volume discounts for the price list linked to the business partner
4) The default price list for the customer
C. 1)The default price list for the document
2) Discount groups tied to the document
3) Special prices for the customer
D. 1) Customer special prices
2) Discount groups
3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list linked to the document
4) Price list defined for the document
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A. You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B. You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C. Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D. Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E. You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the
company logo, for all the reports.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.16 How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A. Quantity in stock - quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B. Quantity in stock + quantity committed - quantity ordered.
C. Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D. Quantity in stock - quantity committed.
Answer: A

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NO.17 PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product,
they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A. Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase
them by 40%.
B. Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C. Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D. In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium
of 40%.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of
stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for
this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the
'Quantity' field. Why?
A. The value in the 'Items per Purchase Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
B. The value in the 'Factor 2' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
C. The value in the 'Required (PurchasingUoM) Inventory Level' field is 4.
D. The value in the 'QuantityPer Packaging Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.19 You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings:
[%1], [%2], and [%3].
What is the function of these strings in a query?
A. The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one
variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the
Query Generator.
D. The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the
Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which
of these statements is correct?
A. When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document
flow.
B. From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C. Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D. You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all
base and target documents.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_BOE_30
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 239 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-26

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NO.1 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.3 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.10 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.15 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.18 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.19 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.20 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-09

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NO.1 Which of the following is a prerequisite for transfer postings between two materials ("material to
material")?
A. The materials being transferred must have the same valuation class.
B. The materials being transferred must have the same material type.
C. The materials being transferred must have the same material group.
D. The materials being transferred must have the same base unit of measure.
Answer: D

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NO.2 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.3 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date and quantity.
To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.4 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of material
group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to material group
4711
Answer: A

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NO.5 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase requisitions
with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements in requirements
planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of supply in the
source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item using
"Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor" indicator in
the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization".?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following elements belong to warehouse stock available for MRP in net requirement
calculation? (Choose three.)
A. Warehouse stock
B. On-order stock
C. Reorder point
D. Non-valuated goods receipt blocked stock
E. Fixed purchase requisitions
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 In which of the following cases is the goods receipt always posted as non-valuated?
A. Goods receipt for initial stock entry
B. Goods receipt to the stock of material provided to vendor
C. Goods receipt for a free-of-charge delivery
D. Goods receipt to the consignment stock
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In the future,
you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups, valuation
classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles to the
new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to the new
material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles to the
new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the advertising
articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You want to post a goods issue from stock in quality inspection. In which of the following cases is this
possible? (Choose two.)
A. Withdrawal for scrapping
B. Withdrawal for inspection sample
C. Withdrawal for a reservation
D. Withdrawal for a cost center
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing? (Choose two.)
A. The transactions in which a movement type can be used
B. The reversal movement types for a movement type
C. The quantity and value updates for postings with a movement type
D. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with a
movement type
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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