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Exam Code: I40-420
Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 249 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.4 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.5 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.13 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.15 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

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NO.19 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

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NO.20 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 030-333
Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Exercise Specialist Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 .Symptoms of claudication include
A. Cramping, burning, and tightness in the calf muscle, usually triggered by activity and relieved
with rest.
B. Acute, sharp pain in the foot on palpation at rest.
C. Crepitus in the knee during cycling.
D. Pitting ankle edema at a rating of 3 +
Answer: A

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NO.2 .In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler's stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .According to the most recent National Institutes of Health's Clinical Guidelines for the
Identification, Evaluation, and Treatment of Overweight and Obesity in Adults, recommendations
for practical clinical assessment include
A. Determining total body fat through the BMI to assess obesity.
B. Determining the degree of abdominal fat and health risk through waist circumference.
C. Using the waist-to-hip ratio as the only definition of obesity and lean muscle mass.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Initial training sessions for a person with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease most likely
would NOT include
A. Continuous cycling activity at 70% of Vo2 max for 30 minutes.
B. Use ofdyspnea scales, RPE scales, and pursed-lip breathing instruction.
C. Intermittent bouts of activity on a variety of modalities (exercise followed by short rest).
D. Encouraging the client to achievean intensity either at or above the anaerobic threshold.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Special precautions for clients with hypertension include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding muscle strengthening exercises that involve low resistance.
B. Avoiding activities that involve theValsalva maneuver.
C. Monitoring a client who is taking diuretics for arrhythmias.
D. Avoiding exercise if resting systolic BP is greater than 200 mm Hg or diastolic BP is greater
than 115 mm Hg.
Answer: A

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NO.6 .During the cool-down phase of an exercise session, clients should be encouraged to
A. Rehydrate.
B. Decrease the intensity of activity quickly to decrease cardiacafterload.
C. Limit the cool-down period to 5 minutes.
D. Increase the number of isometric activities.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What common medication taken by clients with end-stage renal disease requires careful
management for those undergoing hemodialysis?
A. Antihypertensive medication.
B. Lithium.
C. Cholestyramine.
D. Cromolyn sodium.
Answer: A

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NO.8 .A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus checks her fasting morning glucose level on her whole-blood
glucose meter (fingerstick method), and the result of 253 mgldL (14 mmol/L). A urine test is
positive for ketones before her exercise session. What action should you take?
A. Allow her to exercise as long as her glucose is not greater than 300mgldL (17 mmol/L).
B. Not allow her to exercise this session, and notify her physician of the findings.
C. Give her an extra carbohydrate snack, and wait 5 minutes before beginning exercise.
D. Readjust her insulin regimen for the remainder of the day to compensate for the high morning
glucose level.
Answer: B

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NO.9 .The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy individuals
should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.
B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Treatment for claudication during exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Daily exercise sessions.
B. Intensity of activity to maximal tolerable pain, with intermittent rest periods.
C. Cardiorespiratory building activities that are nonweight bearing if the plan is to work on longer
duration and higher intensity to elicit a cardiorespiratory training effect.
D. Stopping activity at the onset ofclaudication discomfort to avoid further vascular damage from
ischemia.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .Which of the following is NOT a benefit of increased flexibility?
A. Increased muscle viscosity, allowing easier and smoother contractions.
B. Reduced muscle tension and increased relaxation.
C. Improved coordination by allowing greater ease of movement.
D. IncreasedROM.
Answer: A

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NO.12 .Which of the following is a resistive lung disease?
A. Asthma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Emphysema.
Answer: B

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NO.13 .Muscular endurance training is best accomplished by
A. Performing four to six repetitions per set.
B. Using high resistance.
C. Incorporating high repetitions.
D. Performing isometric exercises only.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is
A. Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.
B. Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the samesubmaximallevels.
C. Eradication of all symptoms.
D. Elevation of BP.
Answer: A

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NO.15 .Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment activity for inpatient rehabilitation of a
client on the second day after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery?
A. Limit activities as tolerated to the development of self-care activities, ROM for extremities, and
low-resistance activities.
B. Limit upper body activities to biceps curls, horizontal arm adduction, and overhead press using
5-pound weights while sitting on the side of the bed.
C. Progress all activities performed from supine to sitting to standing.
D. Measure vital signs, symptoms, RPE, fatigue, and skin color and perform electrocardiography
before, during, and after treatments to assess activity tolerance.
Answer: B

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NO.16 .Which of the following situations indicates progression to independent and unsupervised exercise
for a client after CABG surgery in an outpatient program?
A. The client exhibits mild cardiac symptoms of angina, occurring intermittently during exercise
and sometimes at home while reading.
B. The client has a functional capacity of greater than 8 MET with hemodynamic responses
appropriate to this level of exercise.
C. The client is noncompliant with smoking cessation and weight loss intervention programs.
D. The client is unable to palpate HR, deliver RPEs, or maintain steady workload intensity during
activity.
Answer: B

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NO.17 .A 62-year-old, obese factory worker complains of pain in his right shoulder on arm abduction; on
evaluation, decreased ROM and strength are noted. You also notice that he is beginning to use
accessory muscles to substitute movements and to compensate. These symptoms may indicate
A. A referred pain from a herniated lumbar disk.
B. Rotator cuff strain or impingement.
C. angina.
D. Advanced stages of multiple sclerosis.
Answer: B

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NO.18 .All of the following are special considerations inprescribing exercise for the client with arthritis
EXCEPT
A. The possible need to splint painful jointsforprotection.
B. Periods of acute inflammation result in decreased pain and joint stiffness.
C. The possibility of gait abnormalities as compensation for pain or stiffness.
D. The need to avoid exercise of warm,swollenjoints.
Answer: B

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NO.19 .All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.
Answer: A

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NO.20 .Transitional care exercise and rehabilitation programs are NOT appropriate for
A. Clients with functionally limitingchronicdisease.
B. Clients withcomorbid disease states.
C. Asymptomatic clients with a functional capacity of 10 MET.
D. Clients at 1 week after CABG surgery.
Answer: C

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NO.21 .Which of the following issues would you include in discharge education instructions for a client
with congestive heart failure to avoid potential emergency situations related to this condition at
home?
A. Record body weight daily, and report weight gains to a physician.
B. Note signs and symptoms (e.g.,dyspnea, intolerance to activities of daily living), and report
them to a physician.
C. Do not palpate the pulse during daily activities or periods of light- headedness, because an
irregular pulse is normal and occurs at various times during the day.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

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NO.22 .Which of the following statements regarding warm-up is FALSE?
A. Muscle blood flow is increased as a result of warm-up.
B. Peripheralvasodilation occurs as a result of warm-up.
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs as a result of warm-up.
D. Between 5 and 10 minutes should be allotted for a warm-up period.
Answer: C

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NO.23 .A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75
bpm would be equal to
A. 195bpm.
B. 166bpm.
C. 177bpm.
D. 102bpm.
Answer: C

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NO.24 .A client taking a calcium-channel blocker most likely will exhibit which of the following responses
during exercise?
A. Hypertensive response.
B. Increased ischemia.
C. Improvedanginal thresholds.
D. Severe hypotension.
Answer: C

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NO.25 .The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on -blocking medication would generally
be
A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 - age) X 0.85.
Answer: A

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NO.26 .Many clients have WI-mode programmed pacemakers. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
exercise programming with WI pacemakers?
A. Persons with WI pacemakers may bechronotropically (HR) competent with exercise but require
longer warm-up and gradual increase in intensity during the initial exercise portion of their session.
B. Persons who arechronotropically competent are tachycardic at rest and should not exercise at
low intensities.
C. BP response is not a good marker of intensity effort in those with WI pacemakers and need not
be evaluated during an exercise session.
D. Persons with WI pacemakers must avoid exercise on the bicycleergometer because of the
location of the ventricular lead wire and potential for displacement.
Answer: A

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NO.27 .A client with angina exhibits symptoms and a 1mm, down-sloping ST- segment depression at a
HR of 129 bpm on his exercise test. His peak exercise target HR should be set at
A. 128bpm.
B. 109 to 119bpm.
C. 129bpm.
D. 125 to 128bpm.
Answer: B

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NO.28 .Which of the following is an appropriate exercise for clients with diabetes and loss of protective
sention in the extremities?
A. Prolonged walking.
B. Jogging.
C. Step-class exercise.
D. Swimming.
Answer: D

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NO.29 .Controlling pool water temperature (83-88¡ãF), avoiding jarring and weigh- bearing activities, and
avoiding movement in swollen, inflamed joints are special considerations for exercise in
A. Clients afteratherectomy.
B. Clients with angina.
C. Clients with osteoporosis.
D. Clients with arthritis.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?
A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as compared with
warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: SDI (SDI - SERVICE DESK MANAGER QUALIFICATION)
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NO.1 You are trying to promote the Service Desk through a variety of recognised and effective channels.
Which of these statements best describes a channel to use?
A. Articles in the local newspaper and Have a Go days
B. Open house days and distributing Service Desk fliers
C. Distributing free pens and Service Desk induction training
D. Induction training and team-building away days
Answer: B

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A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the teams importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which option best describes the expectations of the Service Desk's users?
A. They have confidence that the Service Desk is in control of their Incident or Service Request when
speaking to a senior team member
B. Their incident is professionally managed and they receive consistent and courteous service
C. Their Incidents are resolved very quickly and they are periodically informed of progress
D. They are provided with good decision data and feedback on all their Incidents
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of these options would be a management activity in directing, controlling and co-ordinating
activities?
A. Providing guidance to staff when needed
B. Providing an efficient ergonomic office environment
C. Developing and documenting staff management procedures
D. Developing and implementing an effective IT platform
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are explaining the role of the Service Desk to your new analysts. Which of these options best
describes one of the key requirements?
A. The Service Desks role is to provide a high-quality service promptly and consistently
B. The Service Desks role is to resolve users Problems and record all Change Requests
C. The Service Desks role is to initiate other support teams into the Standard Operating Procedures of the
Service Desk
D. The Service Desks role is to act as a single point of contact for all organisational enquiries
Answer: A

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NO.8 The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organisation, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful strategies?
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organisation in meeting its team
objectives
B. Familiarise yourself with the goals and objectives of other organisations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organisations and within the support industry and your communities
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of these options is NOT an element of successful project management?
A. Managing costs
B. Ensuring a continual improvement focus
C. Developing technical solutions
D. Defining project objectives
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource management
is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented, regularly
reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

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NO.11 Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is a key objective of the IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) process?
A. To eliminate single points of contact for services
B. To eliminate single points of failure for services
C. To remove critical resources for services
D. To remove long term workarounds for services
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of these options is NOT a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Developing and implementing Service Desk goals that integrate with business objectives
B. Representing the IT organisation to its users
C. Maintaining the highest level of productive IT time for users in accordance with the SLA
D. Providing the user with root cause analysis for Incidents resolved at first level
Answer: D

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NO.14 Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory requirements
for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries cultures?
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
Answer: B

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NO.16 You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk currently
operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action should you undertake
to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of these options would be a typical feature of an On-going survey?
A. It is carried out on a six monthly cycle
B. It is executed as soon as possible after a call is closed
C. It is conducted with a minimum of 10 questions to be comprehensive
D. It is designed to show longer term trends in customer satisfaction
Answer: B

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NO.18 You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be the
most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organise a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of these options is a primary objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
A. To record the ownership of every item of hardware and software in the asset base
B. To ensure that IT services, assets, resources and processes are properly managed and maintained
C. To clearly identify the business dependencies of each inventory item
D. To map assets into a clear network infrastructure diagram
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following statements about Problem Management is correct?
A. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but contributes by identifying recurring
Incidents
B. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but manages Major Incident reviews
C. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and may be required to work with technical
teams to diagnose Problems
D. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and uses known errors to aid fast resolution
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of these options is the best way in which you can use formal or informal networks to help
develop your ideas?
A. Recommend holding off-site meetings in a local pub
B. Develop scenarios that will demonstrate how your suggestions and plans will raise everyones profiles
C. Hold meetings with stakeholders to obtain their support for your proposals
D. Hold meetings with your team to discuss aspects of your proposals
Answer: C

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NO.23 If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

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NO.24 Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of so
doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality and cost
effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
A. COBIT
B. SLM
C. ITIL
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the value of telephone support in a Service Desk?
A. First contact resolution
B. Increased turnaround times
C. Reduced abandon rate
D. Skills-based routing
Answer: A

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NO.29 You have recently been promoted to Service Desk Manager and you are keen to show how much you
wish to succeed in this role. Which statement best describes some of the skills that will help you to
succeed?
A. Excellent influencing skills, exemplary debating and creative writing skills
B. A University Degree in Computer Sciences and strong negotiating skills
C. Strong team building skills, excellent people-management and communication skills
D. Time management skills excellent technical and analytical skills
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of these answers would NOT be a suitable area to include in your service ethics code of
conduct?
A. A list of expected behaviour to ensure that all Service Desk employees understand what the
organisation expects of them
B. Standards of moral and ethical behaviour
C. How to manage risk on behalf of the organisation
D. Specific techniques for dealing with difficult business partners
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BCP-222
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which method of enterprise activation uses the BlackBerry Router Service to relay the activation email
to a users email address? (Choose one.)
A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service communicates with the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, the
BlackBerry MDS Connection Service, the BlackBerry Policy Service and the BlackBerry Synchronization
Service using which of the following ports? (Choose one.)
A. Port 1433
B. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Dispatcher Service Startup
C. Port 3200
D. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Controller Service Startup
Answer: C

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NO.3 After initializing the enterprise activation process on the BlackBerry device, the following error is
displayed: An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator. What is a possible cause for
this? (Choose one.)
A. The user has not been assigned an IT policy
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not running
C. The BlackBerry device radio has not been turned on
D. The password that was entered is incorrect
E. The user has not been assigned the appropriate role in the BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following are two pieces of information that are required when configuring a remote
component for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP addresses
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which of the following default host and ports will a system administrator need to browse to in order to
configure the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose one.)
A. https://<servername>:8443/webconsole/app
B. https://<servername>/webconsole/app
C. http://<servername>/webconsole/app
D. http://<servername>:8080/webconsole/app
E. https://<servername>:7443/webconsole/app
Answer: A

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NO.6 What component is responsible for the encryption and decryption of data? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Messaging Agent Service
E. BlackBerry Router Service
Answer: A

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NO.7 .A BlackBerry device user is trying to send an email message but is receiving the following error when
trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue?
(Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan.
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information.
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user.
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process.
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which port is required to be open on the firewall in order for Wi-Fi data to pass from the
BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. 3101
B. 4101
C. 1433
D. 1533
E. 7433
Answer: B

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NO.9 A BlackBerry device user is trying to login to the local Intranet web site but is not able to
authenticate. What could a system administrator do to assist the user with the authentication? (Choose
one.)
A. Resend the IPPP service books to the user that is experiencing the issue
B. Verify the proxy server information within the Blackberry MDS Connection Service
C. Restart the BlackBerry Administration Service to force resending of service books
D. Activate the user with the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
E. Add the user's name to theserver.property xml file within the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.10 How is the initial enterprise activation email message transmitted from the BlackBerry device? (Choose
one.)
A. Encrypted using AES
B. Encrypted using RSA
C. Plain text
D. Encrypted using Triple DES
E. As a hash
Answer: E

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NO.11 Where can you test the network connectivity from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the BlackBerry
Infrastructure? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration Panel
D. MDS Integration Service Administration Console
E. SQL Management Studio
Answer: C

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NO.12 The BlackBerry Monitoring Service can send notifications using which of the following methods?
(Choose three.)
A. Phone (VoIP)
B. Email
C. PIN
D. Network Broadcast
E. Instant Messaging
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 What are the minimum versions for the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution to support Notes Native
Encryption? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Device Software 4.1, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0, and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
B. BlackBerry Device Software 4.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.0, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
C. BlackBerry Device Software 4.2, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.2, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
D. BlackBerry Device Software 5.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Web Desktop 1.0, IBM
Lotus Notes 8.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 8.0
E. BlackBerry Device Software 3.6, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 6.5 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 6.5
Answer: A

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NO.14 During the enterprise activation process the following error is displayed on the BlackBerry device:
IT Policy Rejected What is a possible cause of this error? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device has been activated on another BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device is listed in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. The user does not have an IT policy assigned
D. The user does not have the appropriate role assigned
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is not running
Answer: A

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NO.15 An organization policy has been changed and new security guidelines have been put in place. All
servers that require access to the public Internet must be placed in the DMZ. Which BlackBerry Enterprise
Server component can be place in the DMZ? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
D. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
Answer: B

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NO.16 During the final stage of the wireless enterprise activation the following error is displayed on the
BlackBerry device: IT requires that you connect this handheld to the device manager to continue
activation. What is a possible cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device does not have data services enabled
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not started
C. Wireless backup has been disabled for the user
D. The BlackBerry device is running BlackBerry Device Software prior to 4.0
E. The Disable Wireless Bulk Loads IT policy has been enabled
Answer: E

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NO.17 After a system wide maintenance was completed in an organization, the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
was restarted. After a few minutes it was determined that the BlackBerry Dispatcher
Service was failing to start with the system specific error 5608. The system administrator also confirms
the following:
-The BlackBerry Administration Service console is unable to launch
-The BlackBerry Policy and BlackBerry Synchronization Services do not start
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The SRP connection is down
B. Lost connectivity to the messaging server
C. Lost connectivity to the database server
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server disk subsystem has crashed
E. A new operating system patch has been installed on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: C

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NO.18 How can a BlackBerry device user assign themselves their own enterprise activation password?
(Choose one.)
A. Inputtheir own password in the enterprise activation screen on the BlackBerry device
B. Specify an activation password in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
C. Launch BlackBerry Device Manager and specify their own activation password
D. When swapping BlackBerry devices the new BlackBerry device will automatically prompt the user for a
new activation password
E. Login to BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager and specify an activation password
Answer: E

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NO.19 BlackBerry device users have been calling the support desk all day reporting message delays of 5 to
25 minutes. A request has been made to isolate the issue and identify the source. Which of the
following questions will assist with the process? (Choose three.)
A. Do the affected users span multiple messaging servers?
B. Are PIN messages delayed (sending and/or receiving)?
C. Is each user enabled for email message redirection?
D. Was the corporate firewall recently rebooted?
E. Are the messaging servers working properly and without issues?
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 Which of the following options is NOT available in the BlackBerry Web Desktop Software? (Choose
one.)
A. Wired synchronization of organizer (PIM) data
B. Application Loader
C. Backup and Restore
D. Setting enterprise activation passwords
E. Configuring email message filters
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BCP-621
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution v5.0 in a IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and the
BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week.
Management would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this
mass enterprise activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

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NO.2 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which tool can be used to help control the amount of data the BlackBerry Synchronization Service
sends after an upgrade to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 is complete? (Choose one)
A. SBInjector
B. PolcTrait
C. TraitTool
D. SBThrottle
E. SyncControl
Answer: C

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NO.4 After upgrading two Blackberry Enterprise Server instances to software version 5.0 services books and
IT polices are automatically updated and sent to BlackBerry devices running which minimum version of
BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose one)
A. 3.8 and above
B. 4.0 and above
C. 4.2 and above
D. 4.3 and above
E. 5.0 and above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 IT polices are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps, what level of IT policies take priority? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two BlackBerry Enterprise Server components CANNOT be installed on a separate computer?
(Choose two.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry Router Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Attachment Service
F. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Web-based access to BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 is a function of which component? (Choose
one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
F. BlackBerry Mobile Data Service
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three of the following features are new Calendar application enhancements introduced with
BlackBerry Device Software 5.0 and BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0? (Choose three.) Tosee the
Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Free/Busy Availability Lookup
B. Forward Calendar Entries
C. Calendar Attachment Support
D. Synchronization of public and private contacts
E. Create a new calendar entry from the BlackBerry device
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
What is the correct message flow for an email message going from the mailbox to the BlackBerry
smartphone?Place the steps in the correct order by dragging them from the left to the right.
Answer:

NO.6 What is the maximum number of total BlackBerry smartphone users (CAL's) that the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server can handle before it is recommended that a second BlackBerry Enterprise Server
instance be added to the BlackBerry Domain? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. 50
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 2500
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three email platforms support BlackBerry Collaboration Service? (Choose three.)
To see the Acronym list click the ?Exhibit? button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Client for use with Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 and Microsoft
Office Communications Server 2007
B. BlackBerry Client for IBM Lotus Sametime
C. BlackBerry Client for Novell GroupWise Messenger
D. BlackBerry Client for Microsoft Sharepoint
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which new feature of BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 can be utilized to minimize or eliminate
upgrade-related down-time? (Choose one.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Transporter
C. BlackBerry Administration Service
D. BlackBerry Disposition Service
E. High availability
F. Application Pool
Answer: E

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NO.9 The security team is requesting the ability to control what types of BlackBerry smartphones can activate
on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. Using the Enterprise Service Policy which three restrictions can be
implemented to control which BlackBerry smartphones can use the BlackBerry Enterprise Server?
(Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Model Name
B. ESN Range
C. Manufacturer's Name
D. PIN Range
E. Wi-Fi Equipped
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which two of the following are basic functions of the BlackBerry Mobile Data Service? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. Allows organizations to deliver corporate data wirelessly
B. Enables the system administrator to manage BlackBerry smartphone policies
C. Incorporates the push delivery model and advanced security features for application
deployment
D. Allows BlackBerry smartphone users to manage applications installed on their BlackBerry smartphone
through the BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 DRAG DROP
Which five components in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server are part of the attachment process when
requested from an email message on the BlackBerry smartphone?
Answer:

NO.12 Which three of the following roles are available by default in BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0 role
based administration? (Choose three.) To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the
bottom of the screen.
A. Enterprise Administrator
B. Junior Help Desk
C. Senior Help Desk
D. Database Administrator
E. Senior Enterprise Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Which of the following statements describe the SRP credentials used by the active and standby
instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a high availability environment? (Choose one.)
Tosee the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use a different SRP ID and
authentication key.
B. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID and
authentication key.
C. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use the same SRP ID but
different authentication keys.
D. The active and standby instances of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use different SRP IDs but the
same authentication key.
E. The standby instance of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is automatically assigned an SRP ID or
authentication key.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two of the following are valid Wi-Fi security protocols? (Choose two.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. WPA
B. PSK
C. Triple DES
D. AES
E. PGP
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Why would someone login to the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager.? (Choose one.)
To see the Acronym list click the "Exhibit" button found at the bottom of the screen.
A. To add their account to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. To synchronize their S/MIME certificate
C. To set an enterprise activation password
D. To modify the BlackBerry Attachment Server settings
E. To modify their wireless PIM sync settings
Answer: C

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