2014年2月24日星期一

Lpi 117-201 PDF

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Exam Code: 117-201
Exam Name: Lpi (LPI Level 2 Exam 201)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 202 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Where should the LILO code reside, on a system with only one installation of Linux and no other
operating systems?
A. In the master boot record
B. In the boot sector
C. In the /boot directory
D. At the start of the kernel
Answer: A

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NO.2 What backup arrangement should be used for an intranet web server the contents of which is updated
fairly regularly by different staff?
A. Daily incremental backups with a weekly full backup tape sent off- site
B. Monthly full backups with the tape sent off-site
C. Daily full backups with all tapes sent off-site
D. Weekly full backups with all tapes sent off-site
E. Daily full backups with one tape sent off-site per week
Answer: A

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NO.3 Journalling doesn't appear to be working on an ext3 file-system. When booting, the following line appears:
VFS: Mounted root (ext2 filesystem) readonly.
What could be causing the problem?
A. An old version of e2fsprogs is installed.
B. The kernel does not contain ext3 support.
C. The file-system is specified as ext2 in/etc/fstab.
D. The system was not shut down cleanly.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What command is used to permanently set the options in the kernel when making a boot disk?
A. blockdev
B. kconfig
C. lilo
D. rdev
E. dd
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following must be included in the syslogd configuration file, so that ONLY kernel related
messages with the priority crit are reported?
A. kern.crit
B. kern.!crit
C. kern.=crit
D. kern.*=crit
E. kern.-crit
Answer: A

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NO.6 Messages from programs are not appearing in the user's native language.
What environment variable must be set for this to happen.?
A. LANG
B. I18N
C. MESSAGES
D. MSGS
E. LC_MSGS
Answer: A

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NO.7 During which stage of the boot process would this message be seen?
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Ide0: BM-DMA at 0xff00-0xff07, BIOS settings: hda:DMA, hdb:DMA
A. Boot loader start and hand off to kernel
B. Kernel loading
C. Hardware initialization and setup
D. Daemon initialization and setup
Answer: C

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NO.8 During which stage of the boot process would this message be seen?
ide_setup:hdc=ide-scsi
A. Boot loader start and hand off to kernel
B. Kernel loading
C. Hardware initialization and setup
D. Daemon initialization and setup
Answer: B

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NO.9 What command is used to mount a floppy disk image under /mnt/floppy?
A. mount -1 root.img /mnt/floppy
B. mount --loop root.img /mnt/floppy
C. mount root.img /mnt/floppy
D. mount root.img
E. mount -0 loop root.img /mnt/floppy
Answer: E

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NO.10 When building an RPM package, which rpmbuild option is used to unpack sources and apply patches
before proceeding with the next steps?
A. -ba
B. -bb
C. -be
D. -bs
E. -bp
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 190-602
Exam Name: Lotus (Notes Domino 6/6.5 System)
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Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Joe, a Lotus Notes administrator, is planning to implement policy documents. Which one of the
following best describes what policy documents are defined for?
A.Users, O, OU
B.Users and Groups only
C.Users, O, OU, Servers
D.Users, Groups, and Servers only
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which one of the following statements regarding setup profiles is true?
A.Policies override setup profiles.
B.Setup settings override setup profiles.
C.Desktop settings override setup profiles.
D.Setup profiles override policies for setup and desktop settings.
Correct:D

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NO.3 Which one of the following is NOT true of centralized archive control in Lotus Domino?
A.Must archive to same server
B.Centrally controls user settings
C.May be used to prohibit private settings
D.Has the ability to allow private settings
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements regarding file attachments in Lotus Notes 6 is true?
A.File attachments cannot be removed from mail messages.
B.File attachments can only be removed when saving a message.
C.File attachments can only be removed when forwarding a message.
D.File attachments can be removed when forwarding or saving a message.
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which one of the following policy documents would be used to allow administrators to create
and modify a set of rules that define how documents in a user's mail database are selected and
archived?
A.Mail settings document
B.User settings document
C.Archive settings document
D.Profile settings document
Correct:C

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NO.6 Joe has a group of users he needs to upgrade to a new release of Lotus Notes. Joe is planning
to use policy documents to upgrade the users. Which one of the following statements regarding
policy documents is true?
A.Policy documents cannot help upgrade a user.
B.Users will receive an e-mail notification of the upgrade.
C.Users will be upgraded automatically when they authenticate with a server.
D.Users affected by a policy document will be prompted to upgrade the next time they authenticate with
the server.
Correct:D

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NO.7 Cindy wants to be able to find e-mails from her manager quickly. Which one of the following
features can she use to help her easily identify e-mails from her manager?
A.E-mail warning feature
B.Color coded e-mail feature
C.E-mail notification feature
D.Priority ordering e-mail feature
Correct:B

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NO.8 Acme Corporation wants all users to see the same Welcome page. Which one of the following
should they do to implement this?
A.Manually configure each users Welcome page to adhere to corporate standards.
B.Send an e-mail containing the standard Welcome page to each user to be downloaded on their
machine.
C.Link a corporate database containing the standard Welcome page to a desktop policy document in the
Domino Directory.
D.Update each user's Person document in the Domino Directory to a corporate database containing the
standard Welcome page.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which one of the following best describes the types of tasks that process in the background on
the Notes 6 client?
A.Saving a document, replacing a design, refreshing a design, printing, replicating
B.Detaching attachments, replacing a design, refreshing a design, printing, replicating
C.Saving a document, replacing a design, refreshing a design, logging on to a server, replicating
D.Detaching attachments, replacing a design, refreshing a design, logging on to a server, replicating
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which one of the following statements regarding policy documents is true?
A.Policy documents can be defined for users or servers.
B.Policy documents can be defined for organizations or servers.
C.Policy documents can be defined for users, groups, or servers.
D.Policy documents can be defined for organizations or organizational units.
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 190-720
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 SysAdmin Operating Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The server Web1/XYZ defaults to Server document settings to obtain configuration information
for Internet protocols when which of the following features is not enabled?
A.Internet Site documents
B.Global Domain documents
C.Single Sign-on documents
D.Web Configuration documents
Correct:A

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NO.2 Why did Tim designate Server1/Boise/Acme as the Administration Server for the Domino
Directory?
A.To make sure that all new users were registered on Server1/Boise/Acme.
B.To prevent users from making changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme
C.To force administrators to make all changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
D.To ensure that the Administration Process would process all Domino Directory changes on
Server1/Boise/Acme.
Correct:D

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NO.3 While setting up a new Domino server, Jamie is presented with a list of ports available for
Domino. Where is this list of available ports taken from?
A.The current operating system configuration
B.The current list of DNS names the host is known by
C.The current list of assigned IP addresses on the machine
D.The current list of host names found on the operating system
Correct:A

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NO.4 Recovery information has been configured for the Organizational Unit certifier Packaging. The
administrator has selected 8 administrators that can process recovery information, but 3 are
required to unlock any certified with the Packaging certifier. What three administrators in the list
must be utilized?
A.Any three administrators
B.The last three administrators
C.The first three administrators
D.Any consecutive three administrators
Correct:A

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NO.5 Your Organizational certifier is named Acme. Each city in your company has an Organizational
Unit certifier from the Acme certifier that references the city. Susan wants to create an
Organizational Unit certifier below the city Organizational Unit certifier. Which one of the following
must she have to accomplish this?
A.Reader access to the domain's directory
B.A copy of the Acme Organizational certifier
C.A copy of the city's Organizational Unit certifier
D.Copies of both the Acme Organizational certifier and the location's Organizational Unit certifier
Correct:C

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NO.6 You have made the following entry in the server's notes.ini file Allow_Access_lan7=* ($Groups)
Which of the following will this entry provide?
A.Every group in the Domino Directory will be allowed access over lan7
B.Everyone in the Domino Directory that cannot be found in a group can access the server over lan7
C.Every group in the Domino Directory will be denied access to all other ports on the Domino server
D.No one in the Domino Directory will be able to access lan7 unless you first access another port and
authenticate as part of a group
Correct:A

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NO.7 Where does the Domino Server Setup program store the certifier ID file by default?
A.In the Domino Name and Address Book
B.In any network drive location that you specify during installation
C.In the directory you specify as the Domino data directory during installation
D.On the Domino Administrator's local machine in My Documents\Lotus\Certifiers directory
Correct:C

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NO.8 Tisha has received an encrypted mail message while in Domino Web Access. Which of the
following will Tisha be forced to do to view this message?
A.She will be forced over to HTTPS automatically
B.She will be forced to log out and log back in over TLS
C.She will be forced to use her Notes client to read the email
D.She will be forced to have the message unencrypted by the server and will see the message after it has
been processed
Correct:A

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NO.9 What is the lowest level of rights in the Domino Directory ACL that allows the creation of groups?
A.Author with the Group Creator role
B.Editor with the Group Manager role
C.Designer with the Group Maintainer role
D.Reader with the Group Administrator role
Correct:A

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NO.10 Alan has specified multiple Notes network ports available to TCP/IP on the Domino server. By
default, all TCP/IP-based services on a Domino server listen for network connections on all NICs
and on all configured IP addresses on the server. How does Alan configure Domino to listen to a
specific address?
A.Bind a port to a specific address in the notes.ini
B.Disable all network cards except for the card with the IP address desired
C.Configure the physical server to assign all IP addresses to one network card
D.Enter specific addresses into Domino IP configuration documents in the Domino Directory
Correct:A

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2014年2月23日星期日

ISEB BH0-002 study guide

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NO.1 Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. "The design
authority is responsible for?"
A.Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B.The programme
C.Business integrity within the programme
D.Technical integrity across projects
Answer:D

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NO.2 What is product based planning?
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B.A technique that seeks to identify tasks and activities
C.A technique that monitors the progress of the project
D.A technique that concentrates on the identification and definition of what the project is to deliver
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a Project Initiation Document / Terms of
Reference?
A.Detailed Analysis
B.Timescales
C.Risks
D.Objectives
Answer:A

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NO.4 The Internal Rate of Return is:
A.The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B.The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C.The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D.The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer:D

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NO.5 End Project Reviews should be used to:
A.Identify who was responsible for any failures
B.Consider support requirements
C.Capture lessons learned for future projects of a similar nature
D.Agree when the project team can be released for other work
Answer:C

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NO.1 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
Answer: A

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NO.4 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.8 While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your
chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C

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NO.10 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the
situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
Answer: A

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NO.15 The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What
is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A

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NO.16 A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
Answer: C

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NO.17 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.18 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project
charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status. How would you define this situation.?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: FCGIT
Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 You are monitoring energy usage in the data centre. Which of the following techniques can you use?
a) Data aggregating.
b) Thermal profiling.
c) CPU throttling.
d) Server metering.
A. a and c only.
B. b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. a and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can you use a Continual Service Improvement Model as part of your green IT programme?
A. To ensure on-going monitoring and feedback through the programme lifecycle.
B. To ensure adequate technical support throughout the programme lifecycle.
C. To ensure agile application development to support the programme lifecycle.
D. To ensure senior management commitment throughout the programme lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which units are the results of a Carbon Footprint Calculation displayed?
A. Dollars.
B. Kilowatts.
C. Tonnes.
D. Litres.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of these is NOT an example of a Carbon Offsetting scheme?
A. Supplying new solar cookers in Indonesia.
B. Providing new for old car tyres in the United Kingdom.
C. Generating hydropower without dams in Fiji.
D. Making electricity from landfill in South Africa.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is the greatest business challenge facing data centres?
A. The shortened technology refresh cycles of suppliers.
B. The cost of next generation blade servers.
C. The ability to manage all data centres centrally.
D. The increase in data storage requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following actions make a PC more energy efficient?
A. Disabling stand-by settings.
B. Enabling active power management.
C. Enabling active screen savers.
D. Disabling CPU throttling features.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Carbon Footprint comprises of both direct and indirect emissions.
Which of the following is an indirect emission?
A. Travelling to the office.
B. Opening a spreadsheet.
C. Disposing of a server.
D. Printing out a report.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is part of an organisation's direct Carbon Footprint?
A. Financial services.
B. Office refurbishment.
C. Corporate entertaining.
D. Business travel.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What action can you take to reduce the power consumption of your data centre?
A. Shut down servers out of business hours.
B. Replace small servers with larger ones.
C. Reallocate under-used servers to run active services.
D. Upgrade servers to always run the latest software.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A Green IT policy should be aligned to which other organizational policy?
a) Performance Management Policy.
b) Sustainability Policy.
c) Equal Opportunities Policy.
d) Environmental Policy.
A. b and d only.
B. a, b and d only.
C. b and c only.
D. b, c and d only.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the first step that an organisation should take to improve its Green IT credentials?
A. Rationalise its Data Centre.
B. Review competitors' green policies.
C. Establish its Green IT policy.
D. Replace its old PCs.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following must be measured when calculating the annual energy consumption of a
server?
A. How long the server takes to shut down and reboot.
B. The amount of times the system is upgrading in a year.
C. The energy consumed in different modes of operation.
D. The operating temperature of the server during peak loads.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which document should be created to ensure the implementation of your Green IT policy?
A. The green development plan.
B. The green procurement policy.
C. The green IT action plan.
D. The green building plan.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What should be achieved when setting the scope of an organisation's Green IT Policy.?
A. A definition of what goals are required for the project.
B. A definition of what resources are required for the project.
C. A definition of what people are required for the project.
D. A definition of what activities are required for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.18 How much energy is used by monitor when displaying a PC screen saver?
A. The same as a standard office application.
B. Half the power of a standard office application.
C. One third the power of a standard office application.
D. Twice the power of a standard office application.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following are reasons that Home Working can reduce your carbon footprint?
a) It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
b) It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
c) It reduces the space needed within the office.
d) It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
A. b and c only.
B. a and d only.
C. a and c only.
D. c and d only.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following describes Carbon Neutrality?
A. Eliminating CO2 emissions from product manufacture.
B. Maintaining CO2 emissions at a pre-defined agreed level.
C. Balancing CO2 emissions with an equivalent offset amount.
D. Matching CO2 emissions between defined business areas.
Answer: C

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NO.1 .Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to
any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following individuals inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and
procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives?
A. Information system security professional
B. Data owner
C. Senior management
D. Information system auditor
Answer: D

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NO.3 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Verification and Auditing
C. Configuration Status Accounting
D. Configuration Item Costing
Answer: D

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NO.4 You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
Answer: C

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NO.5 DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance
Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and
medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
Answer: D

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NO.6 The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum
standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that
handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP
security assessment.?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.7 Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical
control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?
A. Data redundancy
B. Hardware redundancy
C. Process redundancy
D. Application redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.8 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management
wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your
project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Historical information
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: A

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NO.9 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. models address specifications, requirements, design,
verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal
budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
A. OMB
B. NIST
C. NSA/CSS
D. DCAA
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following DITSCAP C&A phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of
the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?
A. Phase 4
B. Phase 3
C. Phase 1
D. Phase 2
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user's
authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user's data?
A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout
Answer: C

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:

NO.14 Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an
exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Answer: D

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NO.16 According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among
the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design & Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You have set up a SIEM server for the following
purposes: Analyze the data from different log sources Correlate the events among the log entries Identify
and prioritize significant events Initiate responses to events if required One of your log monitoring staff
wants to know the features of SIEM product that will help them in these purposes. What features will you
recommend? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Asset information storage and correlation
B. Transmission confidentiality protection
C. Incident tracking and reporting
D. Security knowledge base
E. Graphical user interface
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.18 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTO
B. RTA
C. RPO
D. RCO
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition
process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop software requirements.
B. Implement change control procedures.
C. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D. Create acquisition strategy.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work
under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
A. Full operational test
B. Penetration test
C. Paper test
D. Walk-through test
Answer: B

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NO.21 You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative
risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that the project may not complete on time, as
required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating. You
have elected to hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the risk event.
What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?
A. Transference
B. Exploiting
C. Avoidance
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.22 Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review
in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the
application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.23 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?
A. Information Assurance (IA)
B. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
D. Risk Management
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational
Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
B. Verify and Validate Security
C. Manage Project Risk
D. Improve Organization's System Engineering Process
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.25 The LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method is based on vulnerability analysis and
consists of four principle steps. Which of the following processes does the risk assessment step include?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Remediation of a particular vulnerability
B. Cost-benefit examination of countermeasures
C. Identification of vulnerabilities
D. Assessment of attacks
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.26 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States.
A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of
stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same
design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related
to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee
is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of
which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A. Espionage law
B. Trademark law
C. Cyber law
D. Copyright law
Answer: B

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NO.27 The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE)
play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about
ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
B. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
D. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes. E. An ISSO takes part in the development
activities that are required to implement system changes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.28 Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to
an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Answer: A

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NO.29 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase
successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems
Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?
A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
Answer: A

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NO.30 In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members
of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
A. Parallel test
B. Simulation test
C. Full-interruption test
D. Checklist test
Answer: D

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