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Exam Code: HP2-T11
Exam Name: HP (Industry Standard)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 142 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Which statements apply to AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three )
A. Each processor can access only its own memory
B. Requests for memory access are handled by the Northbndge ASIC
C. Each processor can access the full complement of installed memory
D. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors
E. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors
F. Requests for memory access are handled directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport lnk
Answer: ADF

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NO.2 The system administrator typically performs a full backup every Monday and incremental backups on
Tuesdays, Wednesdays, and Thursdays In addition, full backups are performed at the end of the week
and at the end of the month
Which GFSterm refers to the monthly full backup?
A. son
B. sister
C. father
D. grandfather
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer asks you for information about the advantages of RAID 6 over other RAID levels What can
you recommend? (Select three)
A. Performance is equivalent to RAID 5 when reading data.
B. It is the most cost-effective of the fault-tolerant RAID solutions.
C. lt has greater faulttolerancethan RAID4, RAID 1+0, or RAID5.
D. It uses the most storage capacity for fault tolerance of all the RAID levels.
E. it is ideal for applications requiring large logical drives with many physical drives.
Answer: ACE

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NO.4 What happens if you install a 66MHz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot? (Select two)
A. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 32-bit mode
C. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode
D. Any 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards
Answer: AB

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NO.5 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which system architecture is displayed?
A. Dual Peer I/O Bus (DPIO)
B. Triple Peer I/O Bus (TPIO)
C. Highly Parallel System Architecture (HPSA)
D. Memory and I/O Controller Architecture (MIOC)
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is correct when comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron
processors'?
A. Xeon processors are optimized for parallel execution
B. Opteron processors are optimized for parallel execution
C. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed
D. Xeon processors use an integrated memory controller that operates at core processor speed
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of nodes supported in a Fibre Channel Switched Fabric (FC-SW)
environment?
A. 125
B. 126
C. 15 million
D. 16 million
Answer: D

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NO.9 Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) technology uses the same electrical and physical interface as which
technology?
A. IDE
B. ATA
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer has an existing mission critical database application using approximately 20TB of network
storage and plans to add a web server component to the existing environment to increase the storage by
50% Which tape storage technology would you recommend?
A. Autoloader
B. Travan Tape System
C. business-class library
D. enterprise-class library
Answer: C

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NO.11 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.12 What best describes PCI-X architecture?
A. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
B. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
C. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
D. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is an advantage of using iSCSI?
A. it enables the use of SCSI cables for Ethernet communications
B. it enables the use of SAS and SATA drives using standard SCSI controllers
C. It overcomes the inability to use shared storage devices in a heterogeneous environment
D. It overcomes the distance limitations associated with standard Fibre Channel storage transport
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement best describes PCI Express architecture?
A. Data is sent in parallel
B. Data is sent serially over each link
C. PCI Express has more pins than PCI-X
D. PCI Express transfers data in half-duplex
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which backup type would you recommend if a customer environment requires saving the latest
version of each file?
A. full
B. copy
C. differential
D. incremental
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is a characteristic of Double Data Rate (DDR) RAM?
A. sends data every other clock cycle
B. sends data on the rising edge of the clock cycle only
C. sends data on the falling edge of the clock cycle only
D. sends data on both the rising and falling edge of each clock cycle
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which RAID implementation allows for simultaneous failure of multiple drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.18 How does the operation of RAID memory differ from RAID 5 disk storage? (Select three)
A. Data is written sequentially to all banks of memory
B. Data is written simultaneously to all banks of memory
C. Existing parity information must be read before calculating the new parity value
D. There is no need to read the existing parity before calculating a new parity value
E. The memory controller writes parity information to a dedicated parity bank of DIMMs
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 What is the difference between single-ended SCSI and differential SCSI?
A. Single-ended uses twisted pair wires
B. Differential is more susceptible to noise
C. Differential uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
D. Single-ended uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is a characteristic of a PCI-X-based bus?
A. You cannot use PCI-X cards in a conventional PCI system
B. It is fully backward compatible with conventional PCI devices
C. You cannot use existing PCI devices in a PCI-X-based system
D. It is compatible with conventional PCI devices only after updating to newer drivers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y24
Exam Name: HP (Securing HP ProCurve Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Which alert shown in the exhibit is the least sensitive?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action?
A. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
B. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: A

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NO.3 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which security layer does an
unauthorized VLAN correspond to?
A. network access control
B. network immunity protection
C. control protocol detection
D. device-to-device authentication
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is correct about the ProCurve ProActive Defense strategy?
A. It operates at a safe distance from the points of attack and the network resources being attacked.
B. It achieves better-performing, more scalable networks by using high capacity core resources.
C. It enforces access and policy decisions where users and applications connect to the network.
D. It creates a cost-effective management framework by using core infrastructure protection measures.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. The DHCP Spoofing and
Dynamic ARP Protection features correspond to which layer?
A. infrastructure protection
B. network immunity protection
C. device-to-device authentication
D. network access control
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which role does the authenticator play in the 802.1X authentication process?
A. It encapsulates an EAP-access-request inside of a RADIUS response-identity packet and forwards it
for validation.
B. It creates and sends an access-challenge message to the supplicant to request client credentials.
C. It provides two-way translation between EAP messages and RADIUS messages.
D. It validates the EAP-identity-request and responds with either an accept or reject message.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is correct about the threat mitigation capabilities of ProCurve NIM?
A. NIM can apply a threat mitigation action to supported infrastructure devices.
B. NIM can mitigate threats detected by NBAD, but must only log other threats.
C. NIM can detect threats but relies on an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to mitigate them.
D. NIM can mitigate threats from wired offenders, but not wireless offenders.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which infrastructure defense capabilities are provided by the ProCurve ProActive Defense network
security solution? (Select two.)
A. vulnerability assessment database
B. connection rate filtering
C. spoofing protection of DHCP traffic
D. managed security services
E. phishing protection
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which image in the exhibit shows an invalid NIM + IDS deployment?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the default state of a Port Access Entity configured for IEEE 802.1X port-access
authentication?
A. disabled
B. authorized
C. restricted
D. idle
E. unauthorized
Answer: E

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Exam Code: HP2-B44
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Supplies 2009)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 What are the key advantages of original HP inks?
A. unique HP specially formulated color inks for outstanding fade resistant offset printing
B. unique HP specially formulated color inks to produce a range of durable metallic effects
C. unique HP specially formulated color inks for outstanding image quality and fade resistance
D. unique HP specially formulated color inks for graphic artists specializing in industrial design
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many years can HP LTO-3 tapes survive in a vault?
A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 30 years
D. 100 years
Answer: C

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NO.3 HP inks are formulated to deliver great results across a wide range of media. What are the quality
performance capabilities of these inks?
A. opaque, solvent and great image quality
B. durable, permanence and great image quality
C. spreadable, translucent and great image quality
D. transparent, effervescent and great image quality
Answer: B

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NO.4 Who are the most valuable customers (MVC) in Small Medium businesses for HP Supplies?
A. food suppliers and caterers
B. oil retailers and HP mono LaserJet users
C. advertising agencies and color printouts
D. logistics companies and mono HP mfp users
Answer: C

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NO.5 Name two sales and marketing programs for HP Supplies.
A. HP Pay For Print program and HP Corporate Supplies program
B. HP Recycle Cash-back program and HP Rent For Print program
C. HP Low Carbon Footprint Program and HP New Customer Explorer program
D. HP SMB Supplies program and HP Commercial Supplies Outsourced Marketing
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Greater than fifty percent of thin clients shipped by HP are deployed in support of which vendor's virtual
machine software solutions?
A. Citrix
B. RedHat
C. Microsoft
D. VMWare
Answer: D

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NO.2 How would you best describe virtualization to a CEO focused on business issues?
A. It is an amalgamation of multiple network storage devices into a single unit.
B. The layering of applications allows computing resources to be distributed dynamically in real time.
C. It is the partitioning of a physical server into smaller virtual servers in support of business and IT
objectives.
D. It is an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply
automatically meets demand.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your analysis of a customer environment is that their IT departments prefer to dedicate one server per
application, regardless of application type. Which business problem does this opportunity present?
A. consolidation
B. network storage
C. business continuity
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the fastest growing storage connectivity technology?
A. DAS
B. iSCSI
C. ESCON
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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NO.5 HP Adaptive Infrastructure is a component in what major HP strategy?
A. Infrastructure virtualization
B. Business Technology portfolio
C. Business Services Management
D. Business Information Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are the key features of the HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)? (Select two.)
A. synchronous remote replication
B. storage pooling across heterogeneous arrays
C. active/active failover on the Data Path Modules (DPM)
D. elimination o downtime to perform data migrations across arrays
E. the ability to import and export LUNs from the native array into SVSP
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Power failures within the data center are best addressed by what type of solution?
A. network security
B. data consolidation
C. business continuity
D. software as a service
Answer: C

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NO.8 Blade servers currently represent about what percentage of industry-wide x86 server revenue?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 45%
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K03
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 HP Financial Services fall into which asset categories?
A. transfer, buy-back, and repurposing
B. transfer, renewal, and acquisition
C. transfer, disposition, and acquisition
D. disposition, renewal, and refurbishment
Answer: B

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NO.2 SMART objectives help you to prepare and conduct meetings that make real progress for you and your
customer. How should you use SMART objectives at the start of a customer meeting?
A. outline your goals and then move to the first item on the agenda
B. agree on the duration and goals for the meeting and then agree on the agenda
C. outline the total cost of ownership over a three-year period that the customer can expect from HP
StorageWorks solutions
D. agree on the agenda items with the customer and ask if they have any other objectives
Answer: B

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NO.3 The HP BladeSystem Matrix can improve the ability to maintain service levels with built-in disaster
recovery. By which percentage are recovery times improved as a result?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a difficult economic climate, customers scrutinize every major IT investment from a financial
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A. a strong business case including a return on investment and payback statement
B. a detailed list of the product codes and the implementation plan
C. an HP financial services summary
D. the total cost of ownership over a six-year period
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which type of costs can HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) typically reduce?
A. procurement
B. administration
C. server
D. floor space
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a business benefit of pooling and sharing resources in an HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. The IT department can charge its costs to the business more accurately, which means
improved cash flow.
B. The time taken to launch new services is dramatically reduced, which improves time to
revenue.
C. IT resources do not need to be involved in storage provisioning, which releases them for maintenance
activities.
D. The IT department can provision servers and storage more quickly, which reduces the need for
additional headcount.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In an uncertain economic climate, what must ClOs do to manage IT budgets, according to a recent
statement from the Gartner Group?
A. Increase IT spending in line with the rate of inflation.
B. Determine IT spending based on business unit's requirements.
C. Assess IT requirements according to their business impact.
D. Base IT spending increases relative to revenue achievement.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does VROOM stand for in the context of an HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. Virtualized, Resilient, Orchestrated, Optimized, and Modular
B. Virtualized, Resilient, Orchestrated, Ongoing, and Modular
C. Virtualized, Robust, Orchestrated, Optimized, and Modular
D. Virtualized, Robust Orchestrated, Optimized, and Managed
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a benefit of the HP Infrastructure Operating Environment?
A. It helps IT resources to monitor and control IT systems through one main console.
B. It helps drive maximum energy efficiency in the data center.
C. It provides a shared service engine that provisions and adapts application environments in real-time.
D. It provides a single operating system for all HP servers.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does the HP Converged Infrastructure Planning Service deliver for customer?
A. demonstration of the capabilities of the HPBladeSystem Matrix by testing common scenarios
B. awareness and insights into the concepts of shared services and converged infrastructure
C. a clear roadmap with defined with defined phases for the design of future IT infrastructures
D. a clear financial plan to support new IT investments
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-100
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

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NO.4 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

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NO.7 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

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NO.12 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

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NO.13 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.14 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

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NO.15 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.17 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: ASC-066
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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NO.4 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

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NO.5 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.8 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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NO.9 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

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NO.14 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.16 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

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NO.18 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

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NO.20 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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